Directions (1-5) : Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the given questions.
(A) Also, crouched on either side of the throne are two enormous beasts known as the Hungry Tiger and the Cowardly Lion.
(B) In the splendid palace of the Emerald city, which is in the centre of the Land of Oz, is a great throne room, where Princess Ozma sits on a throne of glistering emeralds and listen to all the troubles of her people.
(C) So Ozma's big guards are more ornamental than useful and no one realises that better than the beasts themselves.
(D) Around Ozma's throne, on such occasions, are grouped all the important dignitaries of Oz.
(E) These two beasts are Ozma's chief guardians, but as everyone loves the
beautiful Princess there has never been any disturbance in the great Throne Room.
1. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
2. Which of the following should be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?
1) A 2) E 3) D 4) C 5) B
3. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
4. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) E 5) D
5. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Directions (6-10) : In these questions, sentences with four bold words are given. One from four words given in the bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate. If any, that word will be your answer. If all
words given in the bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, then 'All Correct' is your answer.
6. The RBI governor is the newly appointed vice Chairman of the Bank for International Settlements and will ocuppy the post for three years.
1) governor 2) newly 3) appointed
4) ocuppy 5) All correct
7. In his new book the author argues that firms should generate value for societie as well as shareholders.
1) argues 2) generate 3) value
4) societie 5) All correct
8. You do not need to be a customer of a specific bank in order to purchase a gift card from that bank.
1) need 2) customer 3) specific
4) purchase 5) All correct
9. To deal with the grievances of tax payers the department will set up locale committees in every region.
1) deal 2) locale 3) committees
4) region 5) All correct
10. The government has eased foreign direct investment norms crossed 15 sectors.
1) eased 2) foreign 3) norms
4) crossed 5) All correct
Answers:
1-2, 2-4, 3-1, 4-4, 5-4, 6-4, 7-4, 8-5, 9-2, 10-4.
Showing posts with label IBPS - PO Material. Show all posts
Showing posts with label IBPS - PO Material. Show all posts
12 December 2024
English Language Practice Questions for IBPS Clerks, POs and Specialists Exams
Directions (1-5): In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is the answer. If a sentence is free from error, your answer is (5) i.e. No error.
1. The king humbly (1) / thanked the (2) / noble deer for (3) / saving his life. (4)/ No error (5).
2. The fierce lion and (1) / the sly fox became friend (2) / & decided to (3)/ hunt together. (4)/ No error (5).
3. The clever disciple who (1) / knew the special verse (2)/ wanted to showed how he was (3)/ better than the others. (4)/ No error (5).
4. When the bison had gone down (1)/ to the water hole to drink, (2)/ the jackal goes up to the lion (3)/ and started speaking to him. (4)/ No error (5).
5. The turtle would have (1)/ loved to accompany (2)/ his friends, but (3)/ he could not fly. (4)/ No error (5).
Directions (6-15) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words / phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
There once lived an old man. He had three sons. One day, the old man called his three sons and said 'My end is near! I wish to give you certain things that I have kept for you'. He then gave a rooster to his eldest son, an axe to the second and a cat to the youngest. 'These things may seem worthless but everything depends on how sensibly you use them', said the old man.
In a few days, the old man died. His sons decided to make their fortune using the gifts, they received from their father. So, the eldest son went wandering about with his rooster. He crossed many towns and cities until he reached an island where people didn't know how to divide their time. 'Perhaps this should be the right place to use my rooster', he thought. So he called out to the people and said, 'Look!
Here is an amazing creature; it has a ruby- red crown upon its head like a knight. It crows four
times during the night and when it crows for the last time, the sun soon rises. But, if it crows in
broad daylight, then be careful, there will certainly be a change in weather'. The people of
the island were amazed to see such a creature.
'Is this creature up for sale?'‚ they asked. 'O yes! And the price is as many gold coins as a donkey
can carry', he replied. 'Oh that's just a small price for such a precious and useful creature
who will help in keeping track of time', they replied and willingly gave him the gold coins.
When the eldest son came home with his wealth, the other two were astonished. Now the second son went wandering about with his axe.
He crossed many farms where labourers were carrying their own axes. At last, he chanced upon an island where people knew nothing about axes. So, he began displaying his axe and started narrating its uses. People were amazed to see such a tool and agreed to buy it for a horse laden with as much gold as it could carry.
Now it was the third son's turn to see what he could get of his cat. He went about wandering
through many towns until he reached a place where mice had created a menace and no cat had ever been seen. 'We are fed up of the mice. They are so many that they dance upon our tables and benches and gnaw whatever they catch hold of', they complained. The youngest son let his cat free for sometime. She
began her chase and soon cleared some houses.
People were extremely happy to see this. They begged the king to buy the wonderful creature for their kingdom. The king readily agreed and bought it for a mule laden with gold. The youngest son happily returned home. Thus, the three sons made the best out of their father's gifts and lived in wealth and prosperity.
6. Which of the following can be an appropriate title for the story?
1) Bring Out the Devil in You
2) The Rooster and its Crow
3) The Mantra to be Successful-Own a Cat or a Rooster
4) Make the Best of What You Have
5) The Scheming Father
7. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the story?
1) The king was reluctant to purchase the cat from the youngest son.
2) All three brothers married the king's daughters in the end.
3) The ailing father had secretly informed the eldest son about making money from his rooster.
4) The youngest son was too lazy to work; as a result he went last on his quest for wealth.
5) None of the given statements is true
8. Choose the following which is most nearly the opposite in meaning as the word 'RIGHT' as used in the story?
1) dishonest 2) bad luck 3) unfitted
4) true 5) left
9. Which of the following correctly explains the meaning of the phrase, 'CHANCED UPON' as used in the story?
1) Divided 2) Went with the flow
3) Waited for something 4) Failed to find
5) Came across
10. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word 'BEGGED' as used in the story?
1) pleaded with 2) sued 3) donated
4) granted 5) ordered for
11. As mentioned in the story, people of the island bought the rooster because
A) they genuinely wished to help the eldest son in becoming a merchant.
B) it would help them manage their time more effectively.
C) they were amused by its features and wanted it as a pet.
1) Only (B) 2) Both (A) and (B)
3) Only (A) 4) Only (C)
5) Both (A) and (C)
12. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning as the word 'CERTAINLY'
as used in the story?
1) positively 2) cautiously 3) probably
4) blindly 5) eccentrically
13. Which of the following characteristics of the father comes across distinctly through the story?
1) He was aggressive 2) He was lonely
3) He rarely became angry 4) He was wise
5) He was an animal lover
14. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word 'WORTHLESS' as used in the story?
1) barren 2) significant 3) useless
4) abolished 5) adopted
15. As mentioned in the story, the father gave gifts to his sons because
1) he didn't want them to fight in his absence.
2) they had demanded those gifts from him.
3) those were the only gifts he could afford at that time.
4) he was trying to take revenge on them by giving gifts which were of no use.
5) Other than those given as options
Answers:
1-5
2-2
3-3
4-3
5-5
6-4
7-5
8-3
9-5
10-1
11-1
12-3
13-4
14-3
15-5
1. The king humbly (1) / thanked the (2) / noble deer for (3) / saving his life. (4)/ No error (5).
2. The fierce lion and (1) / the sly fox became friend (2) / & decided to (3)/ hunt together. (4)/ No error (5).
3. The clever disciple who (1) / knew the special verse (2)/ wanted to showed how he was (3)/ better than the others. (4)/ No error (5).
4. When the bison had gone down (1)/ to the water hole to drink, (2)/ the jackal goes up to the lion (3)/ and started speaking to him. (4)/ No error (5).
5. The turtle would have (1)/ loved to accompany (2)/ his friends, but (3)/ he could not fly. (4)/ No error (5).
Directions (6-15) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words / phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
There once lived an old man. He had three sons. One day, the old man called his three sons and said 'My end is near! I wish to give you certain things that I have kept for you'. He then gave a rooster to his eldest son, an axe to the second and a cat to the youngest. 'These things may seem worthless but everything depends on how sensibly you use them', said the old man.
In a few days, the old man died. His sons decided to make their fortune using the gifts, they received from their father. So, the eldest son went wandering about with his rooster. He crossed many towns and cities until he reached an island where people didn't know how to divide their time. 'Perhaps this should be the right place to use my rooster', he thought. So he called out to the people and said, 'Look!
Here is an amazing creature; it has a ruby- red crown upon its head like a knight. It crows four
times during the night and when it crows for the last time, the sun soon rises. But, if it crows in
broad daylight, then be careful, there will certainly be a change in weather'. The people of
the island were amazed to see such a creature.
'Is this creature up for sale?'‚ they asked. 'O yes! And the price is as many gold coins as a donkey
can carry', he replied. 'Oh that's just a small price for such a precious and useful creature
who will help in keeping track of time', they replied and willingly gave him the gold coins.
When the eldest son came home with his wealth, the other two were astonished. Now the second son went wandering about with his axe.
He crossed many farms where labourers were carrying their own axes. At last, he chanced upon an island where people knew nothing about axes. So, he began displaying his axe and started narrating its uses. People were amazed to see such a tool and agreed to buy it for a horse laden with as much gold as it could carry.
Now it was the third son's turn to see what he could get of his cat. He went about wandering
through many towns until he reached a place where mice had created a menace and no cat had ever been seen. 'We are fed up of the mice. They are so many that they dance upon our tables and benches and gnaw whatever they catch hold of', they complained. The youngest son let his cat free for sometime. She
began her chase and soon cleared some houses.
People were extremely happy to see this. They begged the king to buy the wonderful creature for their kingdom. The king readily agreed and bought it for a mule laden with gold. The youngest son happily returned home. Thus, the three sons made the best out of their father's gifts and lived in wealth and prosperity.
6. Which of the following can be an appropriate title for the story?
1) Bring Out the Devil in You
2) The Rooster and its Crow
3) The Mantra to be Successful-Own a Cat or a Rooster
4) Make the Best of What You Have
5) The Scheming Father
7. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the story?
1) The king was reluctant to purchase the cat from the youngest son.
2) All three brothers married the king's daughters in the end.
3) The ailing father had secretly informed the eldest son about making money from his rooster.
4) The youngest son was too lazy to work; as a result he went last on his quest for wealth.
5) None of the given statements is true
8. Choose the following which is most nearly the opposite in meaning as the word 'RIGHT' as used in the story?
1) dishonest 2) bad luck 3) unfitted
4) true 5) left
9. Which of the following correctly explains the meaning of the phrase, 'CHANCED UPON' as used in the story?
1) Divided 2) Went with the flow
3) Waited for something 4) Failed to find
5) Came across
10. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word 'BEGGED' as used in the story?
1) pleaded with 2) sued 3) donated
4) granted 5) ordered for
11. As mentioned in the story, people of the island bought the rooster because
A) they genuinely wished to help the eldest son in becoming a merchant.
B) it would help them manage their time more effectively.
C) they were amused by its features and wanted it as a pet.
1) Only (B) 2) Both (A) and (B)
3) Only (A) 4) Only (C)
5) Both (A) and (C)
12. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning as the word 'CERTAINLY'
as used in the story?
1) positively 2) cautiously 3) probably
4) blindly 5) eccentrically
13. Which of the following characteristics of the father comes across distinctly through the story?
1) He was aggressive 2) He was lonely
3) He rarely became angry 4) He was wise
5) He was an animal lover
14. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word 'WORTHLESS' as used in the story?
1) barren 2) significant 3) useless
4) abolished 5) adopted
15. As mentioned in the story, the father gave gifts to his sons because
1) he didn't want them to fight in his absence.
2) they had demanded those gifts from him.
3) those were the only gifts he could afford at that time.
4) he was trying to take revenge on them by giving gifts which were of no use.
5) Other than those given as options
Answers:
1-5
2-2
3-3
4-3
5-5
6-4
7-5
8-3
9-5
10-1
11-1
12-3
13-4
14-3
15-5
General and Banking Awareness Bits for IBPS Clerks, POs and Officers Exams - 2016
1. Akodara is the first cashless village due to efforts made by ICICI Bank. It is situated in?
1) Gujarat 2) Haryana
3) Maharashtra 4) UP 5) Karnataka
2. Dhasai village in which state became the first cashless village due to initiative of Bank of Baroda in collaboration with NGO Veer Savarkar Pratishthan?
1) Odisha 2) Chhattisgarh
3) Rajasthan 4) Maharashtra 5) Jharkhand
3. Which state declared Ibrahimpur village in the state will be first village to go cashless?
1) AP 2) Jammu and Kashmir
3) Telangana 4) Gujarat 5) Goa
4. Which state joined hands with IDFC Bank to introduce Coupon for Cashless Purchase?
1) Delhi 2) West Bengal
3) Telangana 4) Karnataka 5) Tamil Nadu
5. Palnar village in which state going to become cash less village?
1) Chhattisgarh 2) Jharkhand
3) Odisha 4) MP 5) Meghalaya
6. Bind Toli, Basti, Patsa are the three villages became cash less due to initiative of .........in
Bihar.
1) Union Bank of India 2) Bank of Baroda
3) Punjab National Bank 4) HDFC Bank
5) Indian Overseas Bank
7. First state to adopt a resolution supported the demonetization of high-value currency notes is .......
1) Chhattisgarh 2) Tamil Nadu
3) AP 4) Jharkhand 5) Gujarat
8. Which Indian - UAE young girl was conferred with Children's Peace Prize?
1) Anuradha Prayacchi 2) Prema dhandu
3) Kehkashan Basu
4) Santhosh Naeayanan 5) Trinath Rani
9. Andhra Pradesh launched mobile wallet with the name .......... to help the public in the adoption of cashless payments.
1) AP Purse 2) AP PAY
3) AP POCKET 4) AP VALLET 5) AP GODIGITAL
10. Private sector RBL Bank has launched APBS for small ticket micro-finance loan disbursements. APBS stands for?
1) Aadhaar Payment Bridge System
2) Aadhaar Pal Bridge System
3) Aadhaar Payment Bond System
4) Aadhaar Paid Bridge System
5) Aadhaar Payment Bridge Store
11. APBS through EBT provide basic financial services (cash deposit, balance enquiry, cash withdrawal and remittance) at low-cost access devices called Micro ATMs maintained at business correspondents. In this context, EBT stands for?
1) Electronic Benefit Transfer
2) Electronic Bore Transfer
3) Electronic Benefit Transformation
4) Electric Benefit Transfer
5) Endemic Benefit Transfer
12. Which bank tied up with Spice Digital mobile chain for cash management services through the bank's e-collection facility?
1) Andhra bank 2) ICICI 3) Federal Bank
4) Axis Bank 5) UBI
13. List of recent appointments given. The wrong combination is?
1) Nikki Haley - USA Ambassador to UNO
2) Upma Chowdhary - First women CEO of NSE
3) Meng Hongwei - New president of INTERPOL
4) Pankaj R Patel - FICCI President
5) Rajiv Rishi-Chiarman, Indian Banks Association
14. The recent Appointments / Resignations / Extensions list given. The wrong statement is ........
1) George Yeo resigned as the Chancellor of Nalanda University.
2) Arundhathi Bhattacharya got one year extension as the Chairman of SBI.
3) Deep Kumar Upadhyay was re-appointed as Nepal envoy to India.
4) Junaid Ahmad of Bangladesh taken over as the World Bank's new Country Director for India replacing Onno Ruhl.
5) All of above statements correct
15. India successfully test-fired indigenously developed nuclear capable Prithvi-II missile twice in quick succession as a of a user trial by the army from a test range at Chandipur in?
1) Goa 2) Andhra Pradesh
3) Tamil Nadu 4) Odisha 5) Himachal Pradesh
Answers:
1-1
2-4
3-3
4-3
5-1
6-2
7-1
8-3
9-1
10-1
11-1
12-3
13-2
14-5
15-4.
1) Gujarat 2) Haryana
3) Maharashtra 4) UP 5) Karnataka
2. Dhasai village in which state became the first cashless village due to initiative of Bank of Baroda in collaboration with NGO Veer Savarkar Pratishthan?
1) Odisha 2) Chhattisgarh
3) Rajasthan 4) Maharashtra 5) Jharkhand
3. Which state declared Ibrahimpur village in the state will be first village to go cashless?
1) AP 2) Jammu and Kashmir
3) Telangana 4) Gujarat 5) Goa
4. Which state joined hands with IDFC Bank to introduce Coupon for Cashless Purchase?
1) Delhi 2) West Bengal
3) Telangana 4) Karnataka 5) Tamil Nadu
5. Palnar village in which state going to become cash less village?
1) Chhattisgarh 2) Jharkhand
3) Odisha 4) MP 5) Meghalaya
6. Bind Toli, Basti, Patsa are the three villages became cash less due to initiative of .........in
Bihar.
1) Union Bank of India 2) Bank of Baroda
3) Punjab National Bank 4) HDFC Bank
5) Indian Overseas Bank
7. First state to adopt a resolution supported the demonetization of high-value currency notes is .......
1) Chhattisgarh 2) Tamil Nadu
3) AP 4) Jharkhand 5) Gujarat
8. Which Indian - UAE young girl was conferred with Children's Peace Prize?
1) Anuradha Prayacchi 2) Prema dhandu
3) Kehkashan Basu
4) Santhosh Naeayanan 5) Trinath Rani
9. Andhra Pradesh launched mobile wallet with the name .......... to help the public in the adoption of cashless payments.
1) AP Purse 2) AP PAY
3) AP POCKET 4) AP VALLET 5) AP GODIGITAL
10. Private sector RBL Bank has launched APBS for small ticket micro-finance loan disbursements. APBS stands for?
1) Aadhaar Payment Bridge System
2) Aadhaar Pal Bridge System
3) Aadhaar Payment Bond System
4) Aadhaar Paid Bridge System
5) Aadhaar Payment Bridge Store
11. APBS through EBT provide basic financial services (cash deposit, balance enquiry, cash withdrawal and remittance) at low-cost access devices called Micro ATMs maintained at business correspondents. In this context, EBT stands for?
1) Electronic Benefit Transfer
2) Electronic Bore Transfer
3) Electronic Benefit Transformation
4) Electric Benefit Transfer
5) Endemic Benefit Transfer
12. Which bank tied up with Spice Digital mobile chain for cash management services through the bank's e-collection facility?
1) Andhra bank 2) ICICI 3) Federal Bank
4) Axis Bank 5) UBI
13. List of recent appointments given. The wrong combination is?
1) Nikki Haley - USA Ambassador to UNO
2) Upma Chowdhary - First women CEO of NSE
3) Meng Hongwei - New president of INTERPOL
4) Pankaj R Patel - FICCI President
5) Rajiv Rishi-Chiarman, Indian Banks Association
14. The recent Appointments / Resignations / Extensions list given. The wrong statement is ........
1) George Yeo resigned as the Chancellor of Nalanda University.
2) Arundhathi Bhattacharya got one year extension as the Chairman of SBI.
3) Deep Kumar Upadhyay was re-appointed as Nepal envoy to India.
4) Junaid Ahmad of Bangladesh taken over as the World Bank's new Country Director for India replacing Onno Ruhl.
5) All of above statements correct
15. India successfully test-fired indigenously developed nuclear capable Prithvi-II missile twice in quick succession as a of a user trial by the army from a test range at Chandipur in?
1) Goa 2) Andhra Pradesh
3) Tamil Nadu 4) Odisha 5) Himachal Pradesh
Answers:
1-1
2-4
3-3
4-3
5-1
6-2
7-1
8-3
9-1
10-1
11-1
12-3
13-2
14-5
15-4.
Latest General Awareness Bits for Bank Clerks, POs and Specialist Officer Exams - 2016
1. India's early paper currency also issued by Bank of Hindostan (1770-1832), and the Bengal Bank (1784-91). Bank of Hindostan established ........
1) Agency house of Loyd Company
2) Agency house of Pittsburg
3) Agency house of Cox Company
4) Agency house of Alexander and Company
5) Agency house of Rodd and Pour Company
2. India's early paper currency issued by General Bank of Bengal and Bahar (1773- 75). This bank established by?
1) Lord Dufferin 2) Lord Curzon
3) William Bentinck 4) Warren Hastings
5) Lord Cornwallis
3. Wide use of paper currency came in to existence, once the paper currency issued by three Presidency banks. Three presidency banks are?
1) Bank of Bengal (1805), Bank of Bombay
(1840) and Bank of Madras (1843)
2) Bank of Bengal (1806), Bank of Bombay
(1842) and Bank of Madras (1843)
3) Bank of Bengal (1806), Bank of Bombay
(1840) and Bank of Madras (1843)
4) Bank of Bengal (1806), Bank of Bombay
(1835) and Bank of Madras (1846)
5) Bank of Bengal (1921), Bank of Bombay
(1945) and Bank of Madras (1955)
4. In which year 'The Paper Currency Act' was passed, conferred ultimate powers to the Government of India to end the monopoly of Note Issue, bringing to an end note issues of Private and Presidency Banks?
1) 1878 2) 1845 3) 1871 4) 1861 5) 1859
5. First set of British India notes were the 'Victoria Portrait' Series. As Victoria series imitated by fake notes, in which year the Under Print Series was introduced?
1) 1867 2) 1866 3) 1891 4) 1901 5) 1911
6. Under Print Series of paper currency remained long time in force in India. Which series introduced in 1923?
1) King's Portrait 2) Queen's Portrait
3) Palace Portrait 4) Sword Portrait
5) Crown Portrait
7. Small denomination notes in India introduced, due to First World War. One Rupee Paper currency was introduced on 30th November ........
1) 1907 2) 1915 3) 1911 4) 1917 5) 1920
8. One Rupee Paper currency issued by British Government in 1917 initially bore the portrait of .......
1) King George VI 2) George I
3) George III 4) George IV 5) King George V
9. King George V series continued the circulation of currency till Reserve Bank of India took over the functions of the Controller of Currency. The highest denomination issued by RBI after take over from British India was?
1) Rs.10,000 2) Rs.1,00,000
3) Rs.50,000 4) Rs.25,000 5) Rs.5,00,000
10. Currency Note Press established at Nasik in Maharashtra in?
1) 1937 2) 1931 3) 1928 4) 1942 5) 1951
11. Reserve Bank of India inaugurated on Monday, April 1, 2024 with its Central Office at ......
1) Pune 2) Nasik 3) Kolkata
4) Mysore 5) Mumbai
12. RBI shifted its central office to Mumbai in ...
1) 1951 2) 1955 3) 1937 4) 1941 5) 1942
13. The first Governor of RBI Sir Osborne Smith did not sign any bank notes. The first Reserve Bank issues were signed by the second Governor of RBI. Who is the second Governor of RBI?
1) Sir J. M. Keynes 2) Adam smith
3) Robbins 4) Prof. Samuelsson 5) Sir James Taylor
14. First time in India, in which year the demonization of higher denomination of Rs.1,000, Rs.5,000, and Rs.10,000 notes declared?
1) 1946 2) 1950 3) 1951 4) 1955 5) 1953
15. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the paper currency issue in Independent India?
1) Government of India brought out the new design Rs.1 note in 1949.
2) King's portrait replaced by inserting Lion Capital at Sarnath.
3) In 1953, Hindi was displayed prominently on the new notes.
4) High denomination notes (Rs.1,000, Rs.5,000, Rs.10,000) were reintroduced in 1954.
5) All of above statements correct
16. In which year the commemorative design series in paper currency introduced in the honour of the birth centenary celebrations of Mahatma Gandhi was issued depicting a seated Gandhi with the Sevagram Ashram as the backdrop?
1) 1989 2) 1975 3) 1991 4) 1969 5) 1997
17. In the early 70's, which committee, a direct tax inquiry committee set up by the government, suggested demonetization as a measure to unearth and counter the spread of black money?
1) Kelkar 2) Rangarajan 3) Sivaraman 4) Wanchoo 5) Sarayu
18. High denomination notes demonetized second time in ....... by Morarji Desai government.
1) 1964 2) 1967 3) 1978 4) 1991 5) 1999
19. Rising demands of a growing economy together with a fall in purchasing power. Rs. 500 paper currency note was introduced in ........... with the portrait of Mahatma Gandhi, having water mark continued to be the Lion Capital, Ashoka Pillar.
1) 1984 2) 1985 3) 1987 4) 1994 5) 1981
20. Economic Affairs Secretary is ........
1) Ashok Lavasa 2) Hashmuck Athia
3) Amitab Khant 4) A B Pandey 5) Shaktikanta Das
Answers:
1-4
2-4
3-3
4-4
5-1
6-1
7-4
8-5
9-1
10-3
11-3
12-3
13-5
14-1
15-5
16-4
17-4
18-3
19-3
20-5
1) Agency house of Loyd Company
2) Agency house of Pittsburg
3) Agency house of Cox Company
4) Agency house of Alexander and Company
5) Agency house of Rodd and Pour Company
2. India's early paper currency issued by General Bank of Bengal and Bahar (1773- 75). This bank established by?
1) Lord Dufferin 2) Lord Curzon
3) William Bentinck 4) Warren Hastings
5) Lord Cornwallis
3. Wide use of paper currency came in to existence, once the paper currency issued by three Presidency banks. Three presidency banks are?
1) Bank of Bengal (1805), Bank of Bombay
(1840) and Bank of Madras (1843)
2) Bank of Bengal (1806), Bank of Bombay
(1842) and Bank of Madras (1843)
3) Bank of Bengal (1806), Bank of Bombay
(1840) and Bank of Madras (1843)
4) Bank of Bengal (1806), Bank of Bombay
(1835) and Bank of Madras (1846)
5) Bank of Bengal (1921), Bank of Bombay
(1945) and Bank of Madras (1955)
4. In which year 'The Paper Currency Act' was passed, conferred ultimate powers to the Government of India to end the monopoly of Note Issue, bringing to an end note issues of Private and Presidency Banks?
1) 1878 2) 1845 3) 1871 4) 1861 5) 1859
5. First set of British India notes were the 'Victoria Portrait' Series. As Victoria series imitated by fake notes, in which year the Under Print Series was introduced?
1) 1867 2) 1866 3) 1891 4) 1901 5) 1911
6. Under Print Series of paper currency remained long time in force in India. Which series introduced in 1923?
1) King's Portrait 2) Queen's Portrait
3) Palace Portrait 4) Sword Portrait
5) Crown Portrait
7. Small denomination notes in India introduced, due to First World War. One Rupee Paper currency was introduced on 30th November ........
1) 1907 2) 1915 3) 1911 4) 1917 5) 1920
8. One Rupee Paper currency issued by British Government in 1917 initially bore the portrait of .......
1) King George VI 2) George I
3) George III 4) George IV 5) King George V
9. King George V series continued the circulation of currency till Reserve Bank of India took over the functions of the Controller of Currency. The highest denomination issued by RBI after take over from British India was?
1) Rs.10,000 2) Rs.1,00,000
3) Rs.50,000 4) Rs.25,000 5) Rs.5,00,000
10. Currency Note Press established at Nasik in Maharashtra in?
1) 1937 2) 1931 3) 1928 4) 1942 5) 1951
11. Reserve Bank of India inaugurated on Monday, April 1, 2024 with its Central Office at ......
1) Pune 2) Nasik 3) Kolkata
4) Mysore 5) Mumbai
12. RBI shifted its central office to Mumbai in ...
1) 1951 2) 1955 3) 1937 4) 1941 5) 1942
13. The first Governor of RBI Sir Osborne Smith did not sign any bank notes. The first Reserve Bank issues were signed by the second Governor of RBI. Who is the second Governor of RBI?
1) Sir J. M. Keynes 2) Adam smith
3) Robbins 4) Prof. Samuelsson 5) Sir James Taylor
14. First time in India, in which year the demonization of higher denomination of Rs.1,000, Rs.5,000, and Rs.10,000 notes declared?
1) 1946 2) 1950 3) 1951 4) 1955 5) 1953
15. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the paper currency issue in Independent India?
1) Government of India brought out the new design Rs.1 note in 1949.
2) King's portrait replaced by inserting Lion Capital at Sarnath.
3) In 1953, Hindi was displayed prominently on the new notes.
4) High denomination notes (Rs.1,000, Rs.5,000, Rs.10,000) were reintroduced in 1954.
5) All of above statements correct
16. In which year the commemorative design series in paper currency introduced in the honour of the birth centenary celebrations of Mahatma Gandhi was issued depicting a seated Gandhi with the Sevagram Ashram as the backdrop?
1) 1989 2) 1975 3) 1991 4) 1969 5) 1997
17. In the early 70's, which committee, a direct tax inquiry committee set up by the government, suggested demonetization as a measure to unearth and counter the spread of black money?
1) Kelkar 2) Rangarajan 3) Sivaraman 4) Wanchoo 5) Sarayu
18. High denomination notes demonetized second time in ....... by Morarji Desai government.
1) 1964 2) 1967 3) 1978 4) 1991 5) 1999
19. Rising demands of a growing economy together with a fall in purchasing power. Rs. 500 paper currency note was introduced in ........... with the portrait of Mahatma Gandhi, having water mark continued to be the Lion Capital, Ashoka Pillar.
1) 1984 2) 1985 3) 1987 4) 1994 5) 1981
20. Economic Affairs Secretary is ........
1) Ashok Lavasa 2) Hashmuck Athia
3) Amitab Khant 4) A B Pandey 5) Shaktikanta Das
Answers:
1-4
2-4
3-3
4-4
5-1
6-1
7-4
8-5
9-1
10-3
11-3
12-3
13-5
14-1
15-5
16-4
17-4
18-3
19-3
20-5
Numerical Ability for Bank Clerks and PO Exams - Practice Questions
Directions (1-4): Study the table and answer the given questions.
Number of members in 5 health clubs during 5 given years:
1. What is the respective ratio between total number of members in health club C in 2009 and 2011 together and that in health
club E in the same years together?
1) 13 : 16 2) 11 : 16 3) 9 : 16
4) 13 : 18 5) 11 : 18
2. If 62% of the total number of members in health clubs C, D and E together in 2010 are males, what is the total number of male
members in health clubs C, D and E together in 2010?
1) 283 2) 280 3) 287 4) 271 5) 279
3. What is the difference between total number of members in health clubs A and B together in 2009 and that in health clubs D and E
together in 2013?
1) 83 2) 87 3) 97 4) 93 5) 91
4. Two trains started running from the same point at the same time in opposite directions (one towards North and other towards
South). The speed of the two trains is 16 m/s and 14 m/s respectively. How much time will they take to be 378 km apart? (in hours)
1) 2 hours 2) 3 hours 3) 4 hours
4) 3.5 hours 5) 5 hours
Answers:
1-1; 2-5; 3-3; 4-4.
Number of members in 5 health clubs during 5 given years:
1. What is the respective ratio between total number of members in health club C in 2009 and 2011 together and that in health
club E in the same years together?
1) 13 : 16 2) 11 : 16 3) 9 : 16
4) 13 : 18 5) 11 : 18
2. If 62% of the total number of members in health clubs C, D and E together in 2010 are males, what is the total number of male
members in health clubs C, D and E together in 2010?
1) 283 2) 280 3) 287 4) 271 5) 279
3. What is the difference between total number of members in health clubs A and B together in 2009 and that in health clubs D and E
together in 2013?
1) 83 2) 87 3) 97 4) 93 5) 91
4. Two trains started running from the same point at the same time in opposite directions (one towards North and other towards
South). The speed of the two trains is 16 m/s and 14 m/s respectively. How much time will they take to be 378 km apart? (in hours)
1) 2 hours 2) 3 hours 3) 4 hours
4) 3.5 hours 5) 5 hours
Answers:
1-1; 2-5; 3-3; 4-4.
Numerical Ability Practice Questions for IBPS and Bank Clerks and PO Exams
1. The sum of two positive numbers is 1840. If 40% of the first number is equal to 75% of the second number, what is the larger number among the two?
1) 1400 2) 1240 3) 1560 4) 1420 5) 1200
2. Five years ago, the average of Rimi's age that time and Ruhi's age that time was 12 years. Three years from now if the respective ratio between Rimi's age and Ruhi's age that time will be 5 : 3, what is Rimi's present age?
1) 17 years 2) 33 years 3) 27 years
4) 19 years 5) 22 years
3. In what respective ratio, wheat of variety A worth Rs.25 per kg must be mixed with wheat of variety B worth Rs.18 per kg, so that the new mixture (of both the varieties - A and B) is worth Rs.20 per kg?
1) 2 : 5 2) 3 : 5 3) 3 : 4 4) 4 : 3 5) None
4. A boat can travel 10.5 km upstream in 42 minutes. If the speed of the water current is 1/ 6th th of the speed of the boat in still water, how much distance (in km) the boat can travel downstream in 48 minutes?
1) 14.8 2) 15.6 3) 16.8 4) 17.4 5) None
5. Naveen spends 55% of his monthly salary on rent, EMI and miscellaneous expense in the respective ratio of 3 : 4 : 4. If he spends a total of Rs.20,055 on the rent and EMI together, how much is his monthly salary?
1) Rs.50,300 2) Rs.49,600
3) Rs.46,750 4) Rs.57,300
5) Rs.56,300
6. There are nine positive observations. Average of the first six observations is 10 and of the last four observations is 17. If the average of these nine observations is 13, what is the sixth observation?
1) 17 2) 13 3) 15 4) 19 5) 11
7. 16 ? 8 12 24 60
1) 4 2) 10 3) 8 4) 2 5) 12
8. 2 3 7 22 89 ?
1) 215 2) 446 3) 268 4) 312 5) 584
9. 200 208 192 224 ? 288
1) 160 2) 196 3) 145 4) 154 5) 184
10. 188 92 44 20 8 ?
1) 0.2 2) 0.5 3) 2 4) 4 5) 0.4
11. 19 36 70 121 ? 274
1) 202 2) 169 3) 189 4) 194 5) 171
12. The selling price of 16 chairs is equal to the selling price of 6 tables. If the total selling price of 5 chairs and 3 tables together is Rs.780, what is the total selling price of 2 chairs and 1 table together?
1) Rs.920 2) Rs.960 3) Rs.980
4) Rs.1,060 5) Rs.288
Answers:
1-5; 2-5; 3-1; 4-3; 5-4; 6-5; 7-3; 8-2; 9-1; 10-3; 11-3; 12-5.
1) 1400 2) 1240 3) 1560 4) 1420 5) 1200
2. Five years ago, the average of Rimi's age that time and Ruhi's age that time was 12 years. Three years from now if the respective ratio between Rimi's age and Ruhi's age that time will be 5 : 3, what is Rimi's present age?
1) 17 years 2) 33 years 3) 27 years
4) 19 years 5) 22 years
3. In what respective ratio, wheat of variety A worth Rs.25 per kg must be mixed with wheat of variety B worth Rs.18 per kg, so that the new mixture (of both the varieties - A and B) is worth Rs.20 per kg?
1) 2 : 5 2) 3 : 5 3) 3 : 4 4) 4 : 3 5) None
4. A boat can travel 10.5 km upstream in 42 minutes. If the speed of the water current is 1/ 6th th of the speed of the boat in still water, how much distance (in km) the boat can travel downstream in 48 minutes?
1) 14.8 2) 15.6 3) 16.8 4) 17.4 5) None
5. Naveen spends 55% of his monthly salary on rent, EMI and miscellaneous expense in the respective ratio of 3 : 4 : 4. If he spends a total of Rs.20,055 on the rent and EMI together, how much is his monthly salary?
1) Rs.50,300 2) Rs.49,600
3) Rs.46,750 4) Rs.57,300
5) Rs.56,300
6. There are nine positive observations. Average of the first six observations is 10 and of the last four observations is 17. If the average of these nine observations is 13, what is the sixth observation?
1) 17 2) 13 3) 15 4) 19 5) 11
7. 16 ? 8 12 24 60
1) 4 2) 10 3) 8 4) 2 5) 12
8. 2 3 7 22 89 ?
1) 215 2) 446 3) 268 4) 312 5) 584
9. 200 208 192 224 ? 288
1) 160 2) 196 3) 145 4) 154 5) 184
10. 188 92 44 20 8 ?
1) 0.2 2) 0.5 3) 2 4) 4 5) 0.4
11. 19 36 70 121 ? 274
1) 202 2) 169 3) 189 4) 194 5) 171
12. The selling price of 16 chairs is equal to the selling price of 6 tables. If the total selling price of 5 chairs and 3 tables together is Rs.780, what is the total selling price of 2 chairs and 1 table together?
1) Rs.920 2) Rs.960 3) Rs.980
4) Rs.1,060 5) Rs.288
Answers:
1-5; 2-5; 3-1; 4-3; 5-4; 6-5; 7-3; 8-2; 9-1; 10-3; 11-3; 12-5.
24 November 2024
IBPS Clerks English Material - Correction of Sentences and Rearrangement of Sentences - 2016
Direction (Q. 1- 5): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
1. In modern times, the concept of (1)/ rule of law has become the chief characteristic (2)/
of most of the democratic states (3)/ such as USA and India. (4)/ No error (5).
2. The Idea of superiority (1)/ of Greek states than all other forms of government (2)/ lost importance when Alexander conquered (3)/ the East and the West. (4)/ No error (5).
3. The rights which the law of nature gives (1)/ to every individual and which is inalienable (2)/ are those which could not be (3)/ taken away by any person. (4)/ No error (5).
4. One should have a sense of gratitude (1)/ so that the benefactor does (2)/ not has reasonable cause (3)/ to repent him for his good will. (4)/ No error (5).
5. Seeking pleasure or avoidance of (1)/ pain would be to low or base (2)/ a goal of life for (3)/ human beings to fix. (4)/ No error (5).
Direction (Q. 6 - 10): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
(A) It had no independent existence of its own.
(B) But the condition changed when Christianity began to strike roots in the minds of the intelligentsia and especially when it became the official religion of the Roman Empire.
(C) Prior to the rise of Christianity, the spiritual power was merged into the temporal.
(D) But the secular rulers were not ready to be deprived of the power of the control over the Church.
(E) The king performed the role of the priest.
(F) Hence the controversy raged itself.
6. Which of the following sentences will come FIRST after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
7. Which of the following sentences will come SECOND after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
8. Which of the following sentences will come FIFTH after rearrangement?
1) C 2) D 3) B 4) F 5) E
9. Which of the following sentences will come THIRD after rearrangement?
1) D 2) B 3) A 4) E 5) C
10. Which of the following sentences will come LAST after rearrangement?
1) C 2) B 3) D 4) E 5) F
Answers:
1-4, 2-2, 3-2, 4-4, 5-2, 6-3, 7-1, 8-2, 9-4, 10-5.
1. In modern times, the concept of (1)/ rule of law has become the chief characteristic (2)/
of most of the democratic states (3)/ such as USA and India. (4)/ No error (5).
2. The Idea of superiority (1)/ of Greek states than all other forms of government (2)/ lost importance when Alexander conquered (3)/ the East and the West. (4)/ No error (5).
3. The rights which the law of nature gives (1)/ to every individual and which is inalienable (2)/ are those which could not be (3)/ taken away by any person. (4)/ No error (5).
4. One should have a sense of gratitude (1)/ so that the benefactor does (2)/ not has reasonable cause (3)/ to repent him for his good will. (4)/ No error (5).
5. Seeking pleasure or avoidance of (1)/ pain would be to low or base (2)/ a goal of life for (3)/ human beings to fix. (4)/ No error (5).
Direction (Q. 6 - 10): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
(A) It had no independent existence of its own.
(B) But the condition changed when Christianity began to strike roots in the minds of the intelligentsia and especially when it became the official religion of the Roman Empire.
(C) Prior to the rise of Christianity, the spiritual power was merged into the temporal.
(D) But the secular rulers were not ready to be deprived of the power of the control over the Church.
(E) The king performed the role of the priest.
(F) Hence the controversy raged itself.
6. Which of the following sentences will come FIRST after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
7. Which of the following sentences will come SECOND after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
8. Which of the following sentences will come FIFTH after rearrangement?
1) C 2) D 3) B 4) F 5) E
9. Which of the following sentences will come THIRD after rearrangement?
1) D 2) B 3) A 4) E 5) C
10. Which of the following sentences will come LAST after rearrangement?
1) C 2) B 3) D 4) E 5) F
Answers:
1-4, 2-2, 3-2, 4-4, 5-2, 6-3, 7-1, 8-2, 9-4, 10-5.
10 November 2024
General Awareness Latest Bits for IBPS Clerks, POs, RRB Exams - 2016
1. India and Myanmar signed three Agreements during India visit of state Counsellor of Myanmar Aung San Suu Kyi. The agreements are in the fields of insurance, power and ........
1) Infrastructure 2) Lake development
3) Information Technology 4) Banking 5) Disaster Management
2. Three year action plan of the NITI Aayog will kick start from which fiscal year as announced on 25 October 2016?
1) 2018-19 2) 2020-21
3) 2019-20 4) 2025-26 5) 2017-18
3. Finance Ministry returned a proposal of NITI Aayog for strategic disinvestment of the Centre's stake in CONCOR on the ground, that the move could potentially lead to a public sector monopoly becoming a private sector monopoly. In this context, CONCOR stands for ..................
1) Container Corporation of India Ltd
2) Coastal Corporation of India Ltd
3) Container Consortium of India Ltd
4) Cable Corporation of India Ltd
5) Container Console of India Ltd
4. Niti Aayog stands for .............
1) National Integration for Transforming India
2) National Institution for Turning India
3) Nordic Institution for Transforming India
4) National Institution for Transforming India
5) National Institution for Transforming Initiation
5. NITI Aayog constituted to replace the Planning Commission instituted in 1950. The replacement was done in order to better serve the needs and aspirations of the people of India. Who is the chairman of NITI Aayog?
1) Finance Minister 2) Union Minister for Trade and Commerce
3) Director, Enforcement Directorate 4) Prime Minister
5) Minister of State for Finance
6. NITI Aayog was formed via a resolution of the Union Cabinet on 1 January ...........
1) 1950 2) 1964 3) 1997 4) 2015 5) 2012
7. With a view to bringing the CRAR of RRBs to at least 9%, which committee recommended recapitalisation support to the extent of Rs. 2,200 crore to 40 RRBs in 21 States?
1) Usha Thorat 2) Narasimhan
3) K C Chakrabarty 4) H R Khan 5) Bibek Debroy
8. Who is CEO of NITI Aayog, who worked recently as Secretary, Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP)?
1) Ajay Bhushan Pandey 2) A S Kiran Kumar
3) Amitabh Kant 4) Satya Nadella 5) Sunder Pitchai
9. Which of the following books not written by Arvind Panagariya?
1) India's Tryst with Destiny
2) Sweet Dreams : A Bedtime Storybook Collection
3) Eclipse
4) State Level Reforms, Growth and Development in Indian States
5) Regionalism in Trade Policy : Essays on Preferential Trading
10. NITI Aayog constituted the Task Force on Agriculture Development, headed by ........
1) Raghuram Rajan 2) Amith Mithra
3) Radha Mohan Singh 4) Arvind Panagariya 5) Prakash Singh Badal
11. Full time Members of NITI Aayog are Prof. Ramesh Chand, Prof.V.K.Saraswat and ......
1) Bibek Debroy 2) Pami Dua
3) Chetan Ghate 4) Ravindra Dholakia 5) Michael Debabrata Patra
12. Rashtriya Ekta Diwas observed on ....... with 'Integration of India' as the theme, the day is
the birth day of Sardar Vallabhai Patel.
1) 15 September 2) 5 September
3) 31 October 4) 2 October 5) 14 November
13. First meeting of National Committee on Trade Facilitation (NCTF) stressed the need for higher standards of excellence so that the trade eco system becomes more growth oriented. Who is the chairman of NCTF?
1) Cabinet Secretary P.K.Sinha
2) Finance Secretary Ashok Lavasa
3) Finance Minister Arun Jaitley
4) Minister of State for Finance Santosh Kumar Gangwar
5) Minister of State for Communications Manoj Sinha
14. NCTF is a mandatory requirement under Article 23.2 of the WTO Agreement on Trade Facilitation and NCTF secretariat located at ........
1) Hyderabad 2) Chennai 3) Mumbai 4) New Delhi 5) Guwahati
15. 2017 WTO Ministerial Conference host nation is ..........................
1) India 2) Argentina 3) Germany
4) Japan 5) Switzerland
16. WTO head office located at Geneva. WTO chairman is ...................
1) Suma Chakrabarti, India 2) Klaus Schwab, Germany
3) Robert Azevado, Brazil 4) Jean Claude Junker, Luxemburg
5) Donald Tusk, Poland
17. The WTO officially commenced on 1 January 2024 under ........ signed by 123 nations on 15 April 1994, replacing the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).
1) Geneva Protocol 2) Bretton Woods Conference
3) Paris Agreement 4) New Delhi Declaration
5) Marrakesh Agreement
18. First ever National Ayurveda Day celebrated throughout the country on the occasion
of Dhanwantari Jayanti on ........
1) 28 October 2) 30 October
3) 3 October 4) 8 October 5) 7 April
Answers:
1-4
2-5
3-1
4-4
5-4
6-4
7-3
8-3
9-3
10-4
11-1
12-3
13-1
14-4
15-2
16-3
17-5
18-1.
1) Infrastructure 2) Lake development
3) Information Technology 4) Banking 5) Disaster Management
2. Three year action plan of the NITI Aayog will kick start from which fiscal year as announced on 25 October 2016?
1) 2018-19 2) 2020-21
3) 2019-20 4) 2025-26 5) 2017-18
3. Finance Ministry returned a proposal of NITI Aayog for strategic disinvestment of the Centre's stake in CONCOR on the ground, that the move could potentially lead to a public sector monopoly becoming a private sector monopoly. In this context, CONCOR stands for ..................
1) Container Corporation of India Ltd
2) Coastal Corporation of India Ltd
3) Container Consortium of India Ltd
4) Cable Corporation of India Ltd
5) Container Console of India Ltd
4. Niti Aayog stands for .............
1) National Integration for Transforming India
2) National Institution for Turning India
3) Nordic Institution for Transforming India
4) National Institution for Transforming India
5) National Institution for Transforming Initiation
5. NITI Aayog constituted to replace the Planning Commission instituted in 1950. The replacement was done in order to better serve the needs and aspirations of the people of India. Who is the chairman of NITI Aayog?
1) Finance Minister 2) Union Minister for Trade and Commerce
3) Director, Enforcement Directorate 4) Prime Minister
5) Minister of State for Finance
6. NITI Aayog was formed via a resolution of the Union Cabinet on 1 January ...........
1) 1950 2) 1964 3) 1997 4) 2015 5) 2012
7. With a view to bringing the CRAR of RRBs to at least 9%, which committee recommended recapitalisation support to the extent of Rs. 2,200 crore to 40 RRBs in 21 States?
1) Usha Thorat 2) Narasimhan
3) K C Chakrabarty 4) H R Khan 5) Bibek Debroy
8. Who is CEO of NITI Aayog, who worked recently as Secretary, Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP)?
1) Ajay Bhushan Pandey 2) A S Kiran Kumar
3) Amitabh Kant 4) Satya Nadella 5) Sunder Pitchai
9. Which of the following books not written by Arvind Panagariya?
1) India's Tryst with Destiny
2) Sweet Dreams : A Bedtime Storybook Collection
3) Eclipse
4) State Level Reforms, Growth and Development in Indian States
5) Regionalism in Trade Policy : Essays on Preferential Trading
10. NITI Aayog constituted the Task Force on Agriculture Development, headed by ........
1) Raghuram Rajan 2) Amith Mithra
3) Radha Mohan Singh 4) Arvind Panagariya 5) Prakash Singh Badal
11. Full time Members of NITI Aayog are Prof. Ramesh Chand, Prof.V.K.Saraswat and ......
1) Bibek Debroy 2) Pami Dua
3) Chetan Ghate 4) Ravindra Dholakia 5) Michael Debabrata Patra
12. Rashtriya Ekta Diwas observed on ....... with 'Integration of India' as the theme, the day is
the birth day of Sardar Vallabhai Patel.
1) 15 September 2) 5 September
3) 31 October 4) 2 October 5) 14 November
13. First meeting of National Committee on Trade Facilitation (NCTF) stressed the need for higher standards of excellence so that the trade eco system becomes more growth oriented. Who is the chairman of NCTF?
1) Cabinet Secretary P.K.Sinha
2) Finance Secretary Ashok Lavasa
3) Finance Minister Arun Jaitley
4) Minister of State for Finance Santosh Kumar Gangwar
5) Minister of State for Communications Manoj Sinha
14. NCTF is a mandatory requirement under Article 23.2 of the WTO Agreement on Trade Facilitation and NCTF secretariat located at ........
1) Hyderabad 2) Chennai 3) Mumbai 4) New Delhi 5) Guwahati
15. 2017 WTO Ministerial Conference host nation is ..........................
1) India 2) Argentina 3) Germany
4) Japan 5) Switzerland
16. WTO head office located at Geneva. WTO chairman is ...................
1) Suma Chakrabarti, India 2) Klaus Schwab, Germany
3) Robert Azevado, Brazil 4) Jean Claude Junker, Luxemburg
5) Donald Tusk, Poland
17. The WTO officially commenced on 1 January 2024 under ........ signed by 123 nations on 15 April 1994, replacing the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).
1) Geneva Protocol 2) Bretton Woods Conference
3) Paris Agreement 4) New Delhi Declaration
5) Marrakesh Agreement
18. First ever National Ayurveda Day celebrated throughout the country on the occasion
of Dhanwantari Jayanti on ........
1) 28 October 2) 30 October
3) 3 October 4) 8 October 5) 7 April
Answers:
1-4
2-5
3-1
4-4
5-4
6-4
7-3
8-3
9-3
10-4
11-1
12-3
13-1
14-4
15-2
16-3
17-5
18-1.
General Awareness Latest Questions for All IBPS Bank Exams - November 2016
1. Regional Rural Banks were established under the President of India Ordinance issued in ..................
1) 1985 2) 1990 3) 1975 4) 1935 5) 1955
2. In which year, the RRB Act was passed with a view to develop the rural economy by providing, for the purpose of development of agriculture, trade, commerce, industry and other productive activities in the rural areas?
1) 1982 2) 2015 3) 1990 4) 1976 5) 1935
3. First Regional Rural Bank - Prathama Bank opened on 2 October 2024 in the district of Moradabad in...............
1) Uttar Pradesh 2) Karnataka
3) Andhra Pradesh 4) Tamilnadu 5) MP
4. Central government stake in RRB is ............
1) 40% 2) 80% 3) 50% 4) 100% 5) 20%
5. State government stake in the RRB is ....... percent.
1) 50 2) 35 3) 40 4) 15 5) 100
6. Sponsored bank stake in RRB is ........
1) 30% 2) 40% 3) 100% 4) 35% 5) 15%
7. Financial regulation of RRBs seen after by......
1) RBI 2) SEBI 3) PFRDA 4) IBRD 5) NHB
8. Supervisory powers of RRBs have been vested with.........
1) PFRDA 2) SIDBI 3) ODA 4) NABARD 5) CCI
9. Find the wrong combination relating to the RRB and its sponsored Bank.
1) Andhra Pradesh Grameena Vikas Bank - ICICI
2) Andhra Pragathi Grameena Bank - Syndicate Bank
3) Telangana Grameena Bank - SBH
4) Chaitanya Godavari Grameena Bank - Andhra Bank
5) Saptagiri Grameena Bank - Indian Bank
10. RBI in 2001 constituted a Committee under the Chairmanship of ........ on 'Flow of Credit to Agriculture and Related Activities from
the Banking System' which examined relevance of RRBs in the rural credit system and the alternatives for making it viable.
1) Chakrabarty 2) Narasimhan
3) Dr V S Vyas 4) Rangarajan 5) Usha Thorat
11. NRBI mooted for the efficient working of RRBs. NRBI means ..........
1) National Regional Bank of India
2) Now Rural Bank of India
3) National Run Bank of India
4) National Rural Bank of India
5) None
12. RRB Act passed in April 2015 facilitates raising the share capital of RRBs from the Rs. 5 crore to ...........
1) Rs.500 crore 2) Rs.400 crore
3) Rs.2,000 crore 4) Rs.100 crore 5) Rs. 50 crore
14. As per the revised guidelines of Reserve Bank of India, the priority sector lending target for Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) increased to .................. from the earlier target of 60%.
1) 75% 2) 80% 3) 100% 4) 90% 5) 95%
15. The Priority sector lending of RRBs include the loans given to .....
1) Agriculture
2) Micro, small and medium enterprises
3) Housing 4) Weaker sections
5) All of above
16. As per the new norms released, Rural banks have to advance ...... of total outstanding towards agricultural activities as part of Priority Sector Lending.
1) 18% 2) 15% 3) 25% 4) 7% 5) 10%
17. A target of .......... percent of total outstanding must be given to micro enterprises as part of Priority Sector Lending by RRBs
1) 7.5% 2) 10.5% 3) 6.8% 4) 8.2% 5) 11.5%
18. How much percent of total outstanding must be given to weaker sections as per the new norms of Priority Sector Lending by RRBs?
1) 20% 2) 12% 3) 15% 4) 9% 5) 10%
19. Central Vigilance Commission on 31 October 2024 declared that it is mandatory for public sector banks to report to it, in all such matters involving funds over ........
1) Rs.50 Lakhs 2) Rs.25 Lakhs
3) Rs.1 crore 4) Rs.10 Lakhs 5) Rs.20 Lakhs
20. Union Government and ......... signed $ 650 million loan agreement for the development of 1839 kilometres Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor-III (EDFC-III) Project.
1) World Bank 2) NDB 3) IMF 4) ADB 5) AIIB
Answers:
1-3, 2-4, 3-1, 4-3, 5-4, 6-4, 7-1, 8-4, 9-1, 10-3, 11-4, 12-3, 13-4, 14-1, 15-5, 16-1, 17-1, 18-3, 19-3, 20-1.
1) 1985 2) 1990 3) 1975 4) 1935 5) 1955
2. In which year, the RRB Act was passed with a view to develop the rural economy by providing, for the purpose of development of agriculture, trade, commerce, industry and other productive activities in the rural areas?
1) 1982 2) 2015 3) 1990 4) 1976 5) 1935
3. First Regional Rural Bank - Prathama Bank opened on 2 October 2024 in the district of Moradabad in...............
1) Uttar Pradesh 2) Karnataka
3) Andhra Pradesh 4) Tamilnadu 5) MP
4. Central government stake in RRB is ............
1) 40% 2) 80% 3) 50% 4) 100% 5) 20%
5. State government stake in the RRB is ....... percent.
1) 50 2) 35 3) 40 4) 15 5) 100
6. Sponsored bank stake in RRB is ........
1) 30% 2) 40% 3) 100% 4) 35% 5) 15%
7. Financial regulation of RRBs seen after by......
1) RBI 2) SEBI 3) PFRDA 4) IBRD 5) NHB
8. Supervisory powers of RRBs have been vested with.........
1) PFRDA 2) SIDBI 3) ODA 4) NABARD 5) CCI
9. Find the wrong combination relating to the RRB and its sponsored Bank.
1) Andhra Pradesh Grameena Vikas Bank - ICICI
2) Andhra Pragathi Grameena Bank - Syndicate Bank
3) Telangana Grameena Bank - SBH
4) Chaitanya Godavari Grameena Bank - Andhra Bank
5) Saptagiri Grameena Bank - Indian Bank
10. RBI in 2001 constituted a Committee under the Chairmanship of ........ on 'Flow of Credit to Agriculture and Related Activities from
the Banking System' which examined relevance of RRBs in the rural credit system and the alternatives for making it viable.
1) Chakrabarty 2) Narasimhan
3) Dr V S Vyas 4) Rangarajan 5) Usha Thorat
11. NRBI mooted for the efficient working of RRBs. NRBI means ..........
1) National Regional Bank of India
2) Now Rural Bank of India
3) National Run Bank of India
4) National Rural Bank of India
5) None
12. RRB Act passed in April 2015 facilitates raising the share capital of RRBs from the Rs. 5 crore to ...........
1) Rs.500 crore 2) Rs.400 crore
3) Rs.2,000 crore 4) Rs.100 crore 5) Rs. 50 crore
14. As per the revised guidelines of Reserve Bank of India, the priority sector lending target for Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) increased to .................. from the earlier target of 60%.
1) 75% 2) 80% 3) 100% 4) 90% 5) 95%
15. The Priority sector lending of RRBs include the loans given to .....
1) Agriculture
2) Micro, small and medium enterprises
3) Housing 4) Weaker sections
5) All of above
16. As per the new norms released, Rural banks have to advance ...... of total outstanding towards agricultural activities as part of Priority Sector Lending.
1) 18% 2) 15% 3) 25% 4) 7% 5) 10%
17. A target of .......... percent of total outstanding must be given to micro enterprises as part of Priority Sector Lending by RRBs
1) 7.5% 2) 10.5% 3) 6.8% 4) 8.2% 5) 11.5%
18. How much percent of total outstanding must be given to weaker sections as per the new norms of Priority Sector Lending by RRBs?
1) 20% 2) 12% 3) 15% 4) 9% 5) 10%
19. Central Vigilance Commission on 31 October 2024 declared that it is mandatory for public sector banks to report to it, in all such matters involving funds over ........
1) Rs.50 Lakhs 2) Rs.25 Lakhs
3) Rs.1 crore 4) Rs.10 Lakhs 5) Rs.20 Lakhs
20. Union Government and ......... signed $ 650 million loan agreement for the development of 1839 kilometres Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor-III (EDFC-III) Project.
1) World Bank 2) NDB 3) IMF 4) ADB 5) AIIB
Answers:
1-3, 2-4, 3-1, 4-3, 5-4, 6-4, 7-1, 8-4, 9-1, 10-3, 11-4, 12-3, 13-4, 14-1, 15-5, 16-1, 17-1, 18-3, 19-3, 20-1.
28 October 2024
General Awareness Latest Questions for Bank Clerks, POs, RRBs and Specialist Officers Exams - 2016
1. Who is the Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Power, Coal and New and Renewable Energy and Mines?
1) Rao Inderjit Singh
2) Bandaru Dattatreya
3) Piyush Goel
4) Dharmendra Pradhan
5) Shripad Yasso Naik
2. List of Union Minister of State (Independent Charge ) given. Locate the wrong combination.
1) Rajiv Pratap Rudy - Skill Development & Entrepreneurship
2) Manoj Sinha - Development of North Eastern Region
3) Vijay Goel - Youth Affairs and Sports
4) Nirmala Sitharaman - Commerce and Industry
5) Anil Madhav Dave - Environment, Forest and Climate Change
3. Union Power Minister launched 'DEEP', the e-Bidding portal allows for medium term (1-5 years) purchase of power. DEEP stands for ........
1) Discovery of Efficient Electricity Price
2) Denomination of Efficient Electricity Price
3) Discovery of Efficient Empowered Price
4) Dynamic of Efficient Electricity Price
5) Discovery of End Electricity Price
4. Union Power Minister launched the web platform for e-bidding and e-reverse auction for Tariff Based Competitive Bidding (TBCB) in transmission projects. It is .......
1) e-Trans 2) e-commerce 3) e-paper 4) e-Fuse 5) e-card
5. Union Government recently released Direct Selling Guidelines 2016 framework .......
1) to protect consumers from Ponzi frauds
2) to save small traders from the new guidelines Companies Act
3) to initiate the guidelines for GST council to frame GST Percentages
4) to switch on for initiation of Second generation of National Financial
5) to guide banks not to do direct selling to its customers
6. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) on 8 August 2016, denied any regulatory purview over ponzi schemes. It said it is responsibility of whom to protect the investors from ponzi Schemes?
1) RBI 2) IRDAI 3) Union Government 4) TRAI 5) State governments
7. Which state launched the Kaushalya SETU (Self-Employment and Talent Utilization) initiative, a skill development program for students on 19 October 2016?
1) AP 2) Telangana 3) Maharashtra 4) Assam 5) Meghalaya
8. Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council reached a consensus that the states would be compensated for any loss of revenue after implementation of the new indirect tax regime. Base year for calculating the revenue of a state would be ........
1) 2014-15 2) 2015-16 3) 2016-17
4) 2013-14 5) 2011-12
9. The GST Council headed by Arun Jaitley said the secular growth rate of ....would be taken for calculating the likely revenue of each state in the first five years of implementation of GST.
1) 18% 2) 21% 3) 12% 4) 26% 5) 14%
10. Peoples Resurgence and Justice Alliance (PRJA) floated by.... who ended 16-year long fasting and demanding repeal of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act from Manipur.
1) Irom Sharmila 2) Mukul Sangma
3) Ibobi Singh 4) Manik Sarkar 5) Lal Thanwala
11. The facts of Manipur given. The correct statement is .......
1) Capital is Imphal
2) Chief minister is Okram Ibobi Singh
3) Governor is Najma Heptulla
4) Keibul Lamjao National Park is in Manipur
5) All of above
12. First Global Conference on Voter Education titled 'Voter Education for Inclusive, Informed and Ethical Participation' is being organized by the Election Commission of India in association with UNDP from 19th to 21st October, 2016 at .......
1) New Delhi 2) Mumbai 3) Hyderabad 4) Jaipur 5) Chennai
Answers:
1-3
2-2
3-1
4-1
5-1
6-5
7-3
8-2
9-5
10-1
11-5
12-1.
1) Rao Inderjit Singh
2) Bandaru Dattatreya
3) Piyush Goel
4) Dharmendra Pradhan
5) Shripad Yasso Naik
2. List of Union Minister of State (Independent Charge ) given. Locate the wrong combination.
1) Rajiv Pratap Rudy - Skill Development & Entrepreneurship
2) Manoj Sinha - Development of North Eastern Region
3) Vijay Goel - Youth Affairs and Sports
4) Nirmala Sitharaman - Commerce and Industry
5) Anil Madhav Dave - Environment, Forest and Climate Change
3. Union Power Minister launched 'DEEP', the e-Bidding portal allows for medium term (1-5 years) purchase of power. DEEP stands for ........
1) Discovery of Efficient Electricity Price
2) Denomination of Efficient Electricity Price
3) Discovery of Efficient Empowered Price
4) Dynamic of Efficient Electricity Price
5) Discovery of End Electricity Price
4. Union Power Minister launched the web platform for e-bidding and e-reverse auction for Tariff Based Competitive Bidding (TBCB) in transmission projects. It is .......
1) e-Trans 2) e-commerce 3) e-paper 4) e-Fuse 5) e-card
5. Union Government recently released Direct Selling Guidelines 2016 framework .......
1) to protect consumers from Ponzi frauds
2) to save small traders from the new guidelines Companies Act
3) to initiate the guidelines for GST council to frame GST Percentages
4) to switch on for initiation of Second generation of National Financial
5) to guide banks not to do direct selling to its customers
6. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) on 8 August 2016, denied any regulatory purview over ponzi schemes. It said it is responsibility of whom to protect the investors from ponzi Schemes?
1) RBI 2) IRDAI 3) Union Government 4) TRAI 5) State governments
7. Which state launched the Kaushalya SETU (Self-Employment and Talent Utilization) initiative, a skill development program for students on 19 October 2016?
1) AP 2) Telangana 3) Maharashtra 4) Assam 5) Meghalaya
8. Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council reached a consensus that the states would be compensated for any loss of revenue after implementation of the new indirect tax regime. Base year for calculating the revenue of a state would be ........
1) 2014-15 2) 2015-16 3) 2016-17
4) 2013-14 5) 2011-12
9. The GST Council headed by Arun Jaitley said the secular growth rate of ....would be taken for calculating the likely revenue of each state in the first five years of implementation of GST.
1) 18% 2) 21% 3) 12% 4) 26% 5) 14%
10. Peoples Resurgence and Justice Alliance (PRJA) floated by.... who ended 16-year long fasting and demanding repeal of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act from Manipur.
1) Irom Sharmila 2) Mukul Sangma
3) Ibobi Singh 4) Manik Sarkar 5) Lal Thanwala
11. The facts of Manipur given. The correct statement is .......
1) Capital is Imphal
2) Chief minister is Okram Ibobi Singh
3) Governor is Najma Heptulla
4) Keibul Lamjao National Park is in Manipur
5) All of above
12. First Global Conference on Voter Education titled 'Voter Education for Inclusive, Informed and Ethical Participation' is being organized by the Election Commission of India in association with UNDP from 19th to 21st October, 2016 at .......
1) New Delhi 2) Mumbai 3) Hyderabad 4) Jaipur 5) Chennai
Answers:
1-3
2-2
3-1
4-1
5-1
6-5
7-3
8-2
9-5
10-1
11-5
12-1.
21 October 2024
English Language Passage Questions for IBPS Clerks, POs, RRBs and Specialist Officers
Directions (Q. 1-10): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These blanks are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
A step by ..(1).. approach involving a measurable achievement each day is the ..(2).. effective method to get results. Each little success gives you a shot of confidence and a ..(3)..
of accomplishment that will ..(4).. sustain you in sticking to your programme. It also ..(5).. the final goal seem more ..(6).. since all you to do is put ..(7).. the same amount of effort each day. For example, if you were asked to ..(8).. a book of two hundred and fifty pages without having written anything before, this task probably would seem ..(9)... However, if you were asked to write two pages of text each day, you would have to agree that this request would be both reasonable and ..(10)...
1. 1) leap 2) jump 3) run 4) step 5) bring
2. 1) probable 2) only 3) likely 4) various 5) valiant
3. 1) sensation 2) satisfaction 3) sense 4) savour 5) time
4. 1) help 2) ensure 3) enable 4) allow 5) augment
5. 1) mars 2) makes 3) appears 4) provides 5) proves
6. 1) dependable 2) alluring 3) attractive 4) achievable 5) fascinating
7. 1) out 2) forward 3) forth 4) in 5) on
8. 1) read 2) write 3) recite 4) memorise 5) govern
9. 1) insurmountable 2) inescapable 3) intrinsic 4) innate 5) impersonal
10. 1) rational 2) remote 3) realistic 4) impending 5) invigorat
Answers:
1-4
2-2
3-3
4-1
5-2
6-4
7-3
8-2
9-1
10-3.
A step by ..(1).. approach involving a measurable achievement each day is the ..(2).. effective method to get results. Each little success gives you a shot of confidence and a ..(3)..
of accomplishment that will ..(4).. sustain you in sticking to your programme. It also ..(5).. the final goal seem more ..(6).. since all you to do is put ..(7).. the same amount of effort each day. For example, if you were asked to ..(8).. a book of two hundred and fifty pages without having written anything before, this task probably would seem ..(9)... However, if you were asked to write two pages of text each day, you would have to agree that this request would be both reasonable and ..(10)...
1. 1) leap 2) jump 3) run 4) step 5) bring
2. 1) probable 2) only 3) likely 4) various 5) valiant
3. 1) sensation 2) satisfaction 3) sense 4) savour 5) time
4. 1) help 2) ensure 3) enable 4) allow 5) augment
5. 1) mars 2) makes 3) appears 4) provides 5) proves
6. 1) dependable 2) alluring 3) attractive 4) achievable 5) fascinating
7. 1) out 2) forward 3) forth 4) in 5) on
8. 1) read 2) write 3) recite 4) memorise 5) govern
9. 1) insurmountable 2) inescapable 3) intrinsic 4) innate 5) impersonal
10. 1) rational 2) remote 3) realistic 4) impending 5) invigorat
Answers:
1-4
2-2
3-3
4-1
5-2
6-4
7-3
8-2
9-1
10-3.
English Language for IBPS Clerks POs, RRBs and Specialist Officers - Fill in the Blanks and Sentence Rearrangement
Directions (Q.1-5): In each of the following sentences there are two blanks. Below each sentence, there are five pairs of words denoted by the numbers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully correct.
1. It would be the height of ......... to say that all ......... are morally strong.
1) history, advanced
2) absurdity, erudites
3) pessimism, men
4) commitment, developed
5) nobility, sluggard
2. It is ......... upon all the employees to ......... by the rules of the institution.
1) incumbent, abide
2) based, stand
3) prevail, declare
4) emphasised, follow
5) imperative, elevate
3. The reasoning in this article is so ......... that the readers could not ......... anything.
1) tedious, make
2) monotonous, persuade
3) irrelevant, comprehend
4) incoherent, refine
5) ignominious, understand
4. Every scientist must have a sense of human ......... and ..........
1) approval, eulogy
2) dubiousness, adulation
3) initiation, incitement
4) fulfilment, dignity
5) vision, expansion
5. People are seeking a ......... that remedies all ..........
1) panacea, ailments
2) ingenuity, diseases
3) implementation, benefits
4) protocol, resolutions
5) retreat, benedictions
Directions (Q:6-10): Four words are given in each of the questions of which two are most nearly the same / opposite in mean ing. Find out the number of the correct letter combination.
6. (A) Profuse
(B) Scanty
(C) Retribution
(D) Scorn
1) B-D
2) C-A
3) C-B
4) C-D
5) A-B
7. (A) Outrage
(B) Reward
(C) Affront
(D) Risk
1) A-B
2) A-C
3) C-B
4) B-D
5) D-A
8. (A) Rejoice
(B) Resent
(C) Rival
(D) Mirth
1) C-A
2) A-B
3) C-B
4) D-B
5) D-A
9. (A) Fleeting
(B) Genial
(C) Pacify
(D) Provoke
1) D-A
2) A-C
3) C-D
4) B-A
5) B-D
10. (A) Extensive
(B) Frail
(C) Valiant
(D) Feeble
1) A-D
2) B-A
3) C-B
4) C-A
5) B-D
Directions (Q.11-15): Rearrange the following sentences in proper order and answer the questions given below them:
(A) In addition, you are likely to identify consequences you had not even thought of before.
(B) Try before you buy.
(C) By experiencing the consequences first hand, they become more meaningful.
(D) We use this memorable saying to urge you to experience the consequences of an alternative before you choose it, whenever this is feasible.
(E) If you are considering buying a van after having always owned sedans, rent one for a week or borrow a friend's.
11. Which is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
12. Which is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) B 2) A 3) D 4) C 5) E
13. Which is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) D 2) A 3) B 4) E 5) C
14. Which is the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) B 2) A 3) C 4) D 5) E
15. Which is the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5
Answers:
1-2
2-1
3-3
4-4
5-1
6-5: opp
7-2: same
8-5: same
9-3: opp
10-5: same
(Q.11-15): B D E C A
11-2
12-3
13-4
14-3
15-1.
1. It would be the height of ......... to say that all ......... are morally strong.
1) history, advanced
2) absurdity, erudites
3) pessimism, men
4) commitment, developed
5) nobility, sluggard
2. It is ......... upon all the employees to ......... by the rules of the institution.
1) incumbent, abide
2) based, stand
3) prevail, declare
4) emphasised, follow
5) imperative, elevate
3. The reasoning in this article is so ......... that the readers could not ......... anything.
1) tedious, make
2) monotonous, persuade
3) irrelevant, comprehend
4) incoherent, refine
5) ignominious, understand
4. Every scientist must have a sense of human ......... and ..........
1) approval, eulogy
2) dubiousness, adulation
3) initiation, incitement
4) fulfilment, dignity
5) vision, expansion
5. People are seeking a ......... that remedies all ..........
1) panacea, ailments
2) ingenuity, diseases
3) implementation, benefits
4) protocol, resolutions
5) retreat, benedictions
Directions (Q:6-10): Four words are given in each of the questions of which two are most nearly the same / opposite in mean ing. Find out the number of the correct letter combination.
6. (A) Profuse
(B) Scanty
(C) Retribution
(D) Scorn
1) B-D
2) C-A
3) C-B
4) C-D
5) A-B
7. (A) Outrage
(B) Reward
(C) Affront
(D) Risk
1) A-B
2) A-C
3) C-B
4) B-D
5) D-A
8. (A) Rejoice
(B) Resent
(C) Rival
(D) Mirth
1) C-A
2) A-B
3) C-B
4) D-B
5) D-A
9. (A) Fleeting
(B) Genial
(C) Pacify
(D) Provoke
1) D-A
2) A-C
3) C-D
4) B-A
5) B-D
10. (A) Extensive
(B) Frail
(C) Valiant
(D) Feeble
1) A-D
2) B-A
3) C-B
4) C-A
5) B-D
Directions (Q.11-15): Rearrange the following sentences in proper order and answer the questions given below them:
(A) In addition, you are likely to identify consequences you had not even thought of before.
(B) Try before you buy.
(C) By experiencing the consequences first hand, they become more meaningful.
(D) We use this memorable saying to urge you to experience the consequences of an alternative before you choose it, whenever this is feasible.
(E) If you are considering buying a van after having always owned sedans, rent one for a week or borrow a friend's.
11. Which is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
12. Which is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) B 2) A 3) D 4) C 5) E
13. Which is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) D 2) A 3) B 4) E 5) C
14. Which is the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) B 2) A 3) C 4) D 5) E
15. Which is the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5
Answers:
1-2
2-1
3-3
4-4
5-1
6-5: opp
7-2: same
8-5: same
9-3: opp
10-5: same
(Q.11-15): B D E C A
11-2
12-3
13-4
14-3
15-1.
English Language - Correction of Sentences for IBPS Clerks, POs, RRBs and Specialist Officers - 2016
Directions (Q.1-5): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it.
The error, if any in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5).
1. My teacher is enough pleased (1)/ with my sincerity (2)/ and devotion to duty (3)/ and recommended my promotion. (4)/ No error (5).
2. Kiran is not by no means (1)/ as efficient as his friend. (2)/ Hence his friend receives (3)/ accolades from all the Directors. (4)/ No error (5).
3. As per his promise (1)/ Ravi carried out (2)/ the entire work (3)/ quicker than we expected. (4)/ No error (5).
4. All the delegates (1)/ spoke at length (2)/ regarding the positive impact of the Scheme
(3)/ at the meeting last night. (4)/ No error (5).
5. The members of the family (1)/ do not remember (2)/ ever having paid (3)/ a visit to the holy shrine. (4)/ No error (5).
Directions (Q: 6-10): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3), 4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase in bold to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is mark (5) as the answer.
6. Prasath accompanied with his friends and reached the destination safely.
1) accompanied his friends
2) accompanied at his friends
3) accompanied about his friends
4) accompanied for his friends
5) No correction required
7. Dravid has enough of experience and can be taken as a coach.
1) Dravid had enough of experience
2) Dravid experience enough
3) Dravid has enough experience
4) Dravid's enough of experience
5) No correction required
8. Many participants combated the views of the speaker.
1) combated on the views
2) combated at the views
3) combated over the views
4) combated upon the views
5) No correction required
9. Your error does not admit of an excuse.
1) do not admit of an excuse
2) does not admit an excuse
3) may not admit an excuse
4) does admit an excuse
5) No correction required
10. We believe in the existence of God.
1) We believe on
2) We believe over
3) We believe for
4) We are believing on God
5) No correction require
Answers:
1-1; It should be 'pleased enough'
2-1; It should be 'any means'
3-4; It should be 'more quickly'
4-5; No error;
5-5; No error
6-1
7-3
8-5
9-5
10-5.
The error, if any in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5).
1. My teacher is enough pleased (1)/ with my sincerity (2)/ and devotion to duty (3)/ and recommended my promotion. (4)/ No error (5).
2. Kiran is not by no means (1)/ as efficient as his friend. (2)/ Hence his friend receives (3)/ accolades from all the Directors. (4)/ No error (5).
3. As per his promise (1)/ Ravi carried out (2)/ the entire work (3)/ quicker than we expected. (4)/ No error (5).
4. All the delegates (1)/ spoke at length (2)/ regarding the positive impact of the Scheme
(3)/ at the meeting last night. (4)/ No error (5).
5. The members of the family (1)/ do not remember (2)/ ever having paid (3)/ a visit to the holy shrine. (4)/ No error (5).
Directions (Q: 6-10): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3), 4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase in bold to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is mark (5) as the answer.
6. Prasath accompanied with his friends and reached the destination safely.
1) accompanied his friends
2) accompanied at his friends
3) accompanied about his friends
4) accompanied for his friends
5) No correction required
7. Dravid has enough of experience and can be taken as a coach.
1) Dravid had enough of experience
2) Dravid experience enough
3) Dravid has enough experience
4) Dravid's enough of experience
5) No correction required
8. Many participants combated the views of the speaker.
1) combated on the views
2) combated at the views
3) combated over the views
4) combated upon the views
5) No correction required
9. Your error does not admit of an excuse.
1) do not admit of an excuse
2) does not admit an excuse
3) may not admit an excuse
4) does admit an excuse
5) No correction required
10. We believe in the existence of God.
1) We believe on
2) We believe over
3) We believe for
4) We are believing on God
5) No correction require
Answers:
1-1; It should be 'pleased enough'
2-1; It should be 'any means'
3-4; It should be 'more quickly'
4-5; No error;
5-5; No error
6-1
7-3
8-5
9-5
10-5.
20 October 2024
Latest General Awareness Bits for IBPS Clerks, POs, RRBs and Specialist Officers - 2016
1. Government of India on 28 September 2024 asked the public sector banks to use the NEIN database to check the antecedents of borrowers. In this context, NEIN stands for..........?
1) National End Intelligence Network
2) National Economic Intelligence Network
3) National Economic Intolerance Network
4) National Encrypted Intelligence Network
5) National Elevated Intelligence Network
2. Citibank likely to shut down some India branches as the most of customers using
internet for their daily banking transactions. Where is the head quarters of Citi bank?
1) UK 2) France 3) USA 4) Germany 5) Hong kong
3. Who was recently appointed as the Chairman of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board?
1) Sushil Chandra 2) Anadi Ramlingam
3) MS Sahoo 4) Alka Sirohi 5) Ravi Reddy
4. RBI decided, in consultation with the Government of India, that the limit for WMA for the second half of the financial year 2016-17 (October 2016 ñ March 2017) will be Rs. 25,000 crore. In this context, WMA stands for...
1) Write and Means Advances
2) Ways and Medium Advances
3) Ways and Means Advances
4) Ways and Means Allocations
5) Ways and Mode Advances
5. RBI released the Report of the Internal Working Group (IWG) on Rationalisation of
Branch Authorisation Policy on 6 October 2016. The Group is chaired by....
1) Aravind Pangariaya 2) Amitab Kanth
3) Lily Vadera 4) A K Mathur 5) Tarun Ramadorai
6. On 26 September 2016, which state government decided to write off all farm loans
taken from co-operative Banks up benefitting 7000 farmers?
1) AP 2) Telengana 3) UP
4) Haryana 5) Puducherry
7. Which cricketer appointed as Brand Ambassador of Punjab National Bank recently?
1) Sachin Tendulkar 2) Yuvraj Singh
3) Virat Kohli 4) Shikar Dhawan 5) Ajyanke Rahane
8. Who heads the committee constituted to assess ground situation at Cauvery basin appointed on 5 October 2016?
1) Uma Bharathi 2) Vijay Goel
3) GS Jha 4) Bachawath 5) Dipak Mishra
9. On 23 September 2016, Prime minister approved the constitution of two committees for the commemoration of the birth centenary of Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay. The national Committee headed by PM and the Executive Committee headed by...
1) Finance Minister 2) Water Resources Minister
3) Culture and Tourism Minister 4) Home minister
10. Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay birthday 25 September observed as...
1) Antyodaya Diwas 2) Suparipalan Din
3) Samvidhan Diwas 4) Swatchatha Diwas
5) Bharath Rastra Diwas
11. Cauvery Supervisory Committee strictly adhere to the final order of Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal (CWDT) while deciding on the quantum of the river's water to be released to Tamil Nadu. The committee headed by...
1) Swatantra Kumar 2) Anil Dave
3) Shashi Shekhar 4) M.B.Patil 5) S.P. Velumani
12. On 16 September 2016, who was appointed as the Chairman of the Parliamentary committee on Home affairs?
1) Gulam Nabi Azad 2) L.K.Advani
3) Sitharam Yechury 4) Rajnath Singh
5) Dr.P Chidambaram
13. New chairman of the BCCI Selection Committee is...
1) Anurag Takur 2) Justice Lodha
3) Markandeya Katju 4) MSK Prasad 5) Venkatesh Prasad
14. To register young voters, the Election Commission of India collaborated with which social networking site on 5 October 2016?
1) LinkedIn 2) Twitter 3) Allo
4) WeChat 5) Facebook
15. Who was recently appointed the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission?
1) Sunil Chnadra 2) J Satyanarayana
3) Alka Sirohi 4) Amitab Kanth 5) Prakash Javedkar
16. Who headed the commission that was constituted to probe the controversial land deals in Gurgaon including Robert Vadra`s land deals?
1) Justice AK Mathur 2) Justice RKMathur
3) Justice SN Dhingra 4) Justice RM Lodha
5) Justice Markandeya Katju
Answers:
1-2
2-3
3-3
4-3
5-3
6-5
7-3
8-3
9-5
10-1
11-3
12-5
13-4
14-5
15-3
16-3.
1) National End Intelligence Network
2) National Economic Intelligence Network
3) National Economic Intolerance Network
4) National Encrypted Intelligence Network
5) National Elevated Intelligence Network
2. Citibank likely to shut down some India branches as the most of customers using
internet for their daily banking transactions. Where is the head quarters of Citi bank?
1) UK 2) France 3) USA 4) Germany 5) Hong kong
3. Who was recently appointed as the Chairman of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board?
1) Sushil Chandra 2) Anadi Ramlingam
3) MS Sahoo 4) Alka Sirohi 5) Ravi Reddy
4. RBI decided, in consultation with the Government of India, that the limit for WMA for the second half of the financial year 2016-17 (October 2016 ñ March 2017) will be Rs. 25,000 crore. In this context, WMA stands for...
1) Write and Means Advances
2) Ways and Medium Advances
3) Ways and Means Advances
4) Ways and Means Allocations
5) Ways and Mode Advances
5. RBI released the Report of the Internal Working Group (IWG) on Rationalisation of
Branch Authorisation Policy on 6 October 2016. The Group is chaired by....
1) Aravind Pangariaya 2) Amitab Kanth
3) Lily Vadera 4) A K Mathur 5) Tarun Ramadorai
6. On 26 September 2016, which state government decided to write off all farm loans
taken from co-operative Banks up benefitting 7000 farmers?
1) AP 2) Telengana 3) UP
4) Haryana 5) Puducherry
7. Which cricketer appointed as Brand Ambassador of Punjab National Bank recently?
1) Sachin Tendulkar 2) Yuvraj Singh
3) Virat Kohli 4) Shikar Dhawan 5) Ajyanke Rahane
8. Who heads the committee constituted to assess ground situation at Cauvery basin appointed on 5 October 2016?
1) Uma Bharathi 2) Vijay Goel
3) GS Jha 4) Bachawath 5) Dipak Mishra
9. On 23 September 2016, Prime minister approved the constitution of two committees for the commemoration of the birth centenary of Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay. The national Committee headed by PM and the Executive Committee headed by...
1) Finance Minister 2) Water Resources Minister
3) Culture and Tourism Minister 4) Home minister
10. Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay birthday 25 September observed as...
1) Antyodaya Diwas 2) Suparipalan Din
3) Samvidhan Diwas 4) Swatchatha Diwas
5) Bharath Rastra Diwas
11. Cauvery Supervisory Committee strictly adhere to the final order of Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal (CWDT) while deciding on the quantum of the river's water to be released to Tamil Nadu. The committee headed by...
1) Swatantra Kumar 2) Anil Dave
3) Shashi Shekhar 4) M.B.Patil 5) S.P. Velumani
12. On 16 September 2016, who was appointed as the Chairman of the Parliamentary committee on Home affairs?
1) Gulam Nabi Azad 2) L.K.Advani
3) Sitharam Yechury 4) Rajnath Singh
5) Dr.P Chidambaram
13. New chairman of the BCCI Selection Committee is...
1) Anurag Takur 2) Justice Lodha
3) Markandeya Katju 4) MSK Prasad 5) Venkatesh Prasad
14. To register young voters, the Election Commission of India collaborated with which social networking site on 5 October 2016?
1) LinkedIn 2) Twitter 3) Allo
4) WeChat 5) Facebook
15. Who was recently appointed the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission?
1) Sunil Chnadra 2) J Satyanarayana
3) Alka Sirohi 4) Amitab Kanth 5) Prakash Javedkar
16. Who headed the commission that was constituted to probe the controversial land deals in Gurgaon including Robert Vadra`s land deals?
1) Justice AK Mathur 2) Justice RKMathur
3) Justice SN Dhingra 4) Justice RM Lodha
5) Justice Markandeya Katju
Answers:
1-2
2-3
3-3
4-3
5-3
6-5
7-3
8-3
9-5
10-1
11-3
12-5
13-4
14-5
15-3
16-3.
Latest General Awareness Questions for IBPS POs, Clerks, RRBs and Specialist Officers - 2016
1. On 6 October 2016, the Operating Guidelines for Payment banks issued. The guidelines for Licensing of Payment banks earlier passed by RBI on ...
1) 1 April 2024 2) 26 January 2024
3) 1 January 2024 4) 21 November 2024
5) 27 November 2024
2. As per the operating guidelines issued for payment banks on 6 October 2016, Minimum
Capital Requirement fixed at...
1) 15% 2) 11.5% 3) 6% 4) 7.5% 5) 8.2%
3. Payment Banks are allowed to participate in the call money and CBLO market as both borrowers and lenders, subject to the limit on call money borrowings as applicable to scheduled commercial banks. In this context, CBLO stands for...?
1) collateralized borrowing and lending obligation
2) correlative borrowing and lending obligation
3) collateralized beginning and lending obligation
4) collateralized borrowing and leverage obligation
5) central borrowing and lending obligation
4. As per the guidelines issued on 6 October 2024 by RBI, Payment Banks will not be permitted to lend to any person including their directors. However, they may lend to ... out of the bank's own funds, as per a board approved policy outlining the caps on such loans.
1) Their own employees 2) local business men
3) Income tax payees 4) Small transport companies
5) Share market brokers
5. The aim of RBI to permit the Payment banks is...?
1) to boost Financial inclusion
2) to allow the payments/ remittance services to migrant labour workforce
3) to help the low house holds
4) to help the small entities to do banking business
5) All of above
6. The license of Payment banks can be given to...
1) Existing non-bank Pre-paid Payment Instrument (PPI) issuers
2) Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs)
3) corporate Business Correspondents(BCs)
4) super-market chains
5) All of above
7. The equity capital of Payment banks is...?
1) Rs.10 crore 2) Rs.700 crore
3) Rs.1000 crore 4) Rs.500 crore
5) Rs.100 crore
8. Payment banks not allowed to....?
1) issue credit card 2) issue debit card
3) issue cheque book
4) have remittance services
5) provide accounts to women
9. Promoter's minimum initial contribution to the paid-up equity capital of payments bank shall
at least be .... for the first five years
1) 40% 2) 26% 3) 15% 4) 25% 5) 49%
10. Payments banks can give savings accounts to customers. But in the single customer account, the maximum balance allowed not more than....?
1) Rs. 1 Lakh 2) Rs.75,000 3) Rs.2 Lakh
4) Rs. 5 Lakh 5) customer of bank can maintain any balance
11. The Foreign shareholding in the payments bank allowed up to....?
1)10% 2) 35% 3) 49% 4) 26%
5) as per the FDI policy for private sector banks as amended from time to time
12. On 4 February 2015, RBI appointed the External Advisory Committee for Payments
Banks under the chairmanship of...?
1) Raghuram Rajan 2) Shyamal Gopinath
3) Urjit Patel 4) Narasimham
5) Nachiket Mor
13. First domestic Bank to open a branch in the city of Yangon, Myanmar is...?
1) SBI 2) Corporation Bank
3) Canara Bank 4) Andhra Bank 5) PNB
14. Union Government on 1 October 2024 gave a year extension to the Chairman of SBI.
She is....?
1) Arundhati Bhattacharya
2) Usha Anantha Subramanyam
3) Chitra Ramkrishna
4) Lalitha Kumaramangalam
5) Naina Lal Kidwai
15. In the news papers it is reported that SBI may sell away 5% stake in SBI Life which
may fetch the bank as much as Rs.1,950 crore. Who is the partner of SBI in SBI Life?
1) Prudential (USA) 2) Lombard (Canada)
3) IAG (Australia) 4) PNB Paribas (France)
5) ERGO (Germany)
16. Which bank got the Best bank got award in Retail Banking category, in the 10th edition
of Dun & Bradstreet's India's Top Banks & Banking Awards 2016?
1) ICICI 2) Andhra Bank
3) SBI 4) PNB 5) Yes Bank
17. Which High Court declined to grant a stay to the acquisition process of State Bank of
Travancore (SBT) by SBI on 8 October 2016?
1) AP 2) Karnataka 3) Kerala
4) Tamil Nadu 5) Delhi
18. Punch Lines of Banks given. The wrong combination is...?
1) SBI - The name you can bank upon
2) Andhra bank-Where India Banks
3) Bank of India-Relationship beyond banking
4) Bank of Baroda-India's International Bank
5) Indian Overseas Bank-Good People to Grow With
19. Which International monetary organisation sanctioned Rs. 980 crore to dredge the Brahmaputra as an initiative to develop waterways to Bangladesh and to other South East Asian countries?
1) Asian Development Bank 2) AIIB
3) World bank 4) IMF 5) New Development Bank
20. Acceptance of debit cards in shops set to get a big boost as RBI ready to set up ADF. The fund is expected to subsidise setting up of point of sales terminals or machines that enable acceptance of credit cards in areas where banks do not consider it viable to do so. In this context, ADF stands for...
1) Acceptance Development Fund
2) Agreement Development Fund
3) Acceptance Donor Fund
4) Acceptance Donation Fund
5) Admire Development Fund
Answers:
1-5
2-1
3-1
4-1
5-5
6-5
7-5
8-1
9-1
10-1
11-5
12-5
13-1
14-1
15-4
16-3
17-3
18-1
19-3
20-1.
1) 1 April 2024 2) 26 January 2024
3) 1 January 2024 4) 21 November 2024
5) 27 November 2024
2. As per the operating guidelines issued for payment banks on 6 October 2016, Minimum
Capital Requirement fixed at...
1) 15% 2) 11.5% 3) 6% 4) 7.5% 5) 8.2%
3. Payment Banks are allowed to participate in the call money and CBLO market as both borrowers and lenders, subject to the limit on call money borrowings as applicable to scheduled commercial banks. In this context, CBLO stands for...?
1) collateralized borrowing and lending obligation
2) correlative borrowing and lending obligation
3) collateralized beginning and lending obligation
4) collateralized borrowing and leverage obligation
5) central borrowing and lending obligation
4. As per the guidelines issued on 6 October 2024 by RBI, Payment Banks will not be permitted to lend to any person including their directors. However, they may lend to ... out of the bank's own funds, as per a board approved policy outlining the caps on such loans.
1) Their own employees 2) local business men
3) Income tax payees 4) Small transport companies
5) Share market brokers
5. The aim of RBI to permit the Payment banks is...?
1) to boost Financial inclusion
2) to allow the payments/ remittance services to migrant labour workforce
3) to help the low house holds
4) to help the small entities to do banking business
5) All of above
6. The license of Payment banks can be given to...
1) Existing non-bank Pre-paid Payment Instrument (PPI) issuers
2) Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs)
3) corporate Business Correspondents(BCs)
4) super-market chains
5) All of above
7. The equity capital of Payment banks is...?
1) Rs.10 crore 2) Rs.700 crore
3) Rs.1000 crore 4) Rs.500 crore
5) Rs.100 crore
8. Payment banks not allowed to....?
1) issue credit card 2) issue debit card
3) issue cheque book
4) have remittance services
5) provide accounts to women
9. Promoter's minimum initial contribution to the paid-up equity capital of payments bank shall
at least be .... for the first five years
1) 40% 2) 26% 3) 15% 4) 25% 5) 49%
10. Payments banks can give savings accounts to customers. But in the single customer account, the maximum balance allowed not more than....?
1) Rs. 1 Lakh 2) Rs.75,000 3) Rs.2 Lakh
4) Rs. 5 Lakh 5) customer of bank can maintain any balance
11. The Foreign shareholding in the payments bank allowed up to....?
1)10% 2) 35% 3) 49% 4) 26%
5) as per the FDI policy for private sector banks as amended from time to time
12. On 4 February 2015, RBI appointed the External Advisory Committee for Payments
Banks under the chairmanship of...?
1) Raghuram Rajan 2) Shyamal Gopinath
3) Urjit Patel 4) Narasimham
5) Nachiket Mor
13. First domestic Bank to open a branch in the city of Yangon, Myanmar is...?
1) SBI 2) Corporation Bank
3) Canara Bank 4) Andhra Bank 5) PNB
14. Union Government on 1 October 2024 gave a year extension to the Chairman of SBI.
She is....?
1) Arundhati Bhattacharya
2) Usha Anantha Subramanyam
3) Chitra Ramkrishna
4) Lalitha Kumaramangalam
5) Naina Lal Kidwai
15. In the news papers it is reported that SBI may sell away 5% stake in SBI Life which
may fetch the bank as much as Rs.1,950 crore. Who is the partner of SBI in SBI Life?
1) Prudential (USA) 2) Lombard (Canada)
3) IAG (Australia) 4) PNB Paribas (France)
5) ERGO (Germany)
16. Which bank got the Best bank got award in Retail Banking category, in the 10th edition
of Dun & Bradstreet's India's Top Banks & Banking Awards 2016?
1) ICICI 2) Andhra Bank
3) SBI 4) PNB 5) Yes Bank
17. Which High Court declined to grant a stay to the acquisition process of State Bank of
Travancore (SBT) by SBI on 8 October 2016?
1) AP 2) Karnataka 3) Kerala
4) Tamil Nadu 5) Delhi
18. Punch Lines of Banks given. The wrong combination is...?
1) SBI - The name you can bank upon
2) Andhra bank-Where India Banks
3) Bank of India-Relationship beyond banking
4) Bank of Baroda-India's International Bank
5) Indian Overseas Bank-Good People to Grow With
19. Which International monetary organisation sanctioned Rs. 980 crore to dredge the Brahmaputra as an initiative to develop waterways to Bangladesh and to other South East Asian countries?
1) Asian Development Bank 2) AIIB
3) World bank 4) IMF 5) New Development Bank
20. Acceptance of debit cards in shops set to get a big boost as RBI ready to set up ADF. The fund is expected to subsidise setting up of point of sales terminals or machines that enable acceptance of credit cards in areas where banks do not consider it viable to do so. In this context, ADF stands for...
1) Acceptance Development Fund
2) Agreement Development Fund
3) Acceptance Donor Fund
4) Acceptance Donation Fund
5) Admire Development Fund
Answers:
1-5
2-1
3-1
4-1
5-5
6-5
7-5
8-1
9-1
10-1
11-5
12-5
13-1
14-1
15-4
16-3
17-3
18-1
19-3
20-1.
02 October 2024
IBPS - CWE Call Letters Download for PO / MT VI Prelims Test - 2016
IBPS has released the call letters for the CWE of IBPS PO / MT VI Prelims 2016 Examination scheduled in October 2016. Following are the important dates for call letters download:
Important Dates:
1) Commencement of Call letter Download: 1 October 2024
2) Closure of Call letter Download: 27 October 2024
Candidates can follow the link from organisation website to download call letter. At login page, enter the Registration No / Roll No and Password / DOB (dd-mm-yy) at the required places to download the Call Letter.
If you are unable to login, please check your entries in login screen. You should use REGISTRATION NO and PASSWORD as received at the time of registration by displaying on the screen and also mailed to you in auto generated email acknowledgement.
Important Dates:
1) Commencement of Call letter Download: 1 October 2024
2) Closure of Call letter Download: 27 October 2024
Candidates can follow the link from organisation website to download call letter. At login page, enter the Registration No / Roll No and Password / DOB (dd-mm-yy) at the required places to download the Call Letter.
If you are unable to login, please check your entries in login screen. You should use REGISTRATION NO and PASSWORD as received at the time of registration by displaying on the screen and also mailed to you in auto generated email acknowledgement.
03 October 2024
Quantitative Aptitude Model Questions for Bank PO Recruitment Exams
Directions (Q. 1-5): Refer to the following table and answer the given questions.
Number of books sold by 6 stores in 5 different months.
1. The number of books sold by Store E in March is what percent less than the number of books sold by Store A in May? (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
1) 29 2) 31 3) 37 4) 33 5) 35
2. The total number of books sold by Store B during all the given months together is what percent of the total number of books sold by Store D during all the given months together?
1) 82 2) 88 3) 92 4) 84 5) 86
3. What is the average number of books sold by all the given stores in February?
1) 207 2) 211 3) 219 4) 223 5) 227
4. The difference between the total number of books sold by all the given stores in January and the total number of books sold by all the given stores together in April is .....
1) 353 2) 379 3) 363 4) 347 5) 369
5. What is the ratio of the total number of books sold by stores A and C together in March to that sold by stores E and F together in May?
1) 9 : 11 2) 11 : 13 3) 5 : 7 4) 13 : 17 5) 7 : 9
Answers:
1-4; 2-5; 3-2; 4-3; 5-1.
Number of books sold by 6 stores in 5 different months.
1. The number of books sold by Store E in March is what percent less than the number of books sold by Store A in May? (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
1) 29 2) 31 3) 37 4) 33 5) 35
2. The total number of books sold by Store B during all the given months together is what percent of the total number of books sold by Store D during all the given months together?
1) 82 2) 88 3) 92 4) 84 5) 86
3. What is the average number of books sold by all the given stores in February?
1) 207 2) 211 3) 219 4) 223 5) 227
4. The difference between the total number of books sold by all the given stores in January and the total number of books sold by all the given stores together in April is .....
1) 353 2) 379 3) 363 4) 347 5) 369
5. What is the ratio of the total number of books sold by stores A and C together in March to that sold by stores E and F together in May?
1) 9 : 11 2) 11 : 13 3) 5 : 7 4) 13 : 17 5) 7 : 9
Answers:
1-4; 2-5; 3-2; 4-3; 5-1.
Quantitative Aptitude Questions for Bank PO Prelims Exams
1. Shashank bought 36 kg of sugar @ Rs.45 per kg and 24 kg of sugar @ Rs.42 per kg. He mixed them and sold the mixture so as to earn 20% profit. What rate per kg did he sell it?
1) Rs.52.56 2) Rs.52.42 3) Rs.52.36 4) Rs.55.44 5) Rs.54.25
2. The difference between the length and the breadth of a rectangle is 6 m. The length of the rectangle is equal to the side of a square whose area is 729 sq. m. What is the perimeter of the rectangle? (in m)
1) 96 2) 108 3) 92 4) 88 5) 84
3. Soumith purchased 10 calculators and 16 watches for Rs.56,100 and sold them so as to earn an overall profit of 20%. At what total price should he sell 15 calculators and 24 watches together so as to earn the same percentage of profit?
1) Rs.1,00,980 2) Rs.1,16,176
3) Rs.1,21,176 4) Rs.1,00,660 5) Rs.1,24,132
4. Some chocolates were distributed among 4 friends A, B, C and D such that the ratio of chocolates received by A to those received by C was 7 : 9. B received 29 more chocolates than A and D received 33 more chocolates than C. If B received 15 more chocolates than C, how many chocolates did D receive?
1) 84 2) 96 3) 72 4) 99 5) 87
5. Abhi invested an amount with Company X for two years at simple rate of interest 15 pcpa. He invested the entire amount obtained from Company X after two years with company Y at compound rate of interest 12 pcpa for two years. If the amount finally received by him was Rs.81,536, what was the amount invested by him originally with Company X?
1) Rs.65,000 2) Rs.60,000
3) Rs.56,000 4) Rs.50,000 5) Rs.45,000
6. The average weight of 60 students in a class is 55 kg. Six of them, whose average weight is 52 kg, left the
class and another set of six students, whose average weight is 42 kg, joined the class. What is the new average weight of the class? (in kg)
1) 54.25 2) 52.75 3) 53.5 4) 54 5) 53
7. What will be the compound interest on Rs.18,600 for 2 years, the rate of interest being 8% for the first year and 15% for the second year?
1) Rs.4,489.90 2) Rs.4,967.20
3) Rs.4,232.80 4) Rs.4,501.20 5) Rs.3,837.10
8. A certain number of capsules were purchased for Rs.176. Six more capsules could have been purchased for the same
amount if each capsule was cheaper by Rs. 3. What was the number of capsules purchased?
1) 13 2) 16 3) 17 4) 8 5) 11
9. 36 workers can finish a piece of work in 14 days. If the work is to be completed in 8 days, how many extra workers are required?
1) 29 2) 33 3) 23 4) 31 5) 27
10. A man can row 13 kmph downstream and 9 kmph upstream. What is the speed of the man in still water? (in kmph)
1) 12 2) 10.5 3) 11 4) 10 5) 11.5
11. The ratio of roses to lilies in a garden is 3 : 2. The average number of roses and lilies is 180. What is the number of lilies in the garden?
1) 144 2) 360 3) 182 4) 216 5) None of these
12. The sum of five numbers is 260. The average of the first two numbers is 30 and the average of the last two numbers is 70. What is the third number?
1) 33 2) 75 3) 60 4) Can't be determined 5) None
Answers:
1-1; 2-1; 3-1; 4-2; 5-4; 6-4; 7-4; 8-2; 9-5; 10-3; 11-1; 12-3.
1) Rs.52.56 2) Rs.52.42 3) Rs.52.36 4) Rs.55.44 5) Rs.54.25
2. The difference between the length and the breadth of a rectangle is 6 m. The length of the rectangle is equal to the side of a square whose area is 729 sq. m. What is the perimeter of the rectangle? (in m)
1) 96 2) 108 3) 92 4) 88 5) 84
3. Soumith purchased 10 calculators and 16 watches for Rs.56,100 and sold them so as to earn an overall profit of 20%. At what total price should he sell 15 calculators and 24 watches together so as to earn the same percentage of profit?
1) Rs.1,00,980 2) Rs.1,16,176
3) Rs.1,21,176 4) Rs.1,00,660 5) Rs.1,24,132
4. Some chocolates were distributed among 4 friends A, B, C and D such that the ratio of chocolates received by A to those received by C was 7 : 9. B received 29 more chocolates than A and D received 33 more chocolates than C. If B received 15 more chocolates than C, how many chocolates did D receive?
1) 84 2) 96 3) 72 4) 99 5) 87
5. Abhi invested an amount with Company X for two years at simple rate of interest 15 pcpa. He invested the entire amount obtained from Company X after two years with company Y at compound rate of interest 12 pcpa for two years. If the amount finally received by him was Rs.81,536, what was the amount invested by him originally with Company X?
1) Rs.65,000 2) Rs.60,000
3) Rs.56,000 4) Rs.50,000 5) Rs.45,000
6. The average weight of 60 students in a class is 55 kg. Six of them, whose average weight is 52 kg, left the
class and another set of six students, whose average weight is 42 kg, joined the class. What is the new average weight of the class? (in kg)
1) 54.25 2) 52.75 3) 53.5 4) 54 5) 53
7. What will be the compound interest on Rs.18,600 for 2 years, the rate of interest being 8% for the first year and 15% for the second year?
1) Rs.4,489.90 2) Rs.4,967.20
3) Rs.4,232.80 4) Rs.4,501.20 5) Rs.3,837.10
8. A certain number of capsules were purchased for Rs.176. Six more capsules could have been purchased for the same
amount if each capsule was cheaper by Rs. 3. What was the number of capsules purchased?
1) 13 2) 16 3) 17 4) 8 5) 11
9. 36 workers can finish a piece of work in 14 days. If the work is to be completed in 8 days, how many extra workers are required?
1) 29 2) 33 3) 23 4) 31 5) 27
10. A man can row 13 kmph downstream and 9 kmph upstream. What is the speed of the man in still water? (in kmph)
1) 12 2) 10.5 3) 11 4) 10 5) 11.5
11. The ratio of roses to lilies in a garden is 3 : 2. The average number of roses and lilies is 180. What is the number of lilies in the garden?
1) 144 2) 360 3) 182 4) 216 5) None of these
12. The sum of five numbers is 260. The average of the first two numbers is 30 and the average of the last two numbers is 70. What is the third number?
1) 33 2) 75 3) 60 4) Can't be determined 5) None
Answers:
1-1; 2-1; 3-1; 4-2; 5-4; 6-4; 7-4; 8-2; 9-5; 10-3; 11-1; 12-3.
Bank PO Exams - Quantitative Aptitude Model Questions
Directions (Q. 1-5): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given number series?
1. 6 11 31 121 601 ?
1) 3600 2) 3621 3) 3601 4) 3611 5) 3602
2. 7 11 19 35 67 ?
1) 99 2) 131 3) 9264 4) 137 5) 124
3. 8 22 64 190 568 ?
1) 1702 2) 1654 3) 1650 4) 1706 5) 1705
4. 5760 2880 960 240 48 ?
1) 6 2) 12 3) 8 4) 24 5) 16
5. 2 3 18 115 854 ?
1) 6027 2) 7767 3) 6992 4) 6913 5) 6059
6. A car covers the first 39 km of its journey in 45 minutes and the remaining 25 km in 35 minutes. What is the average speed of the car?
1) 40 km/hr 2) 64 km/hr 3) 49 km/hr 4) 48 km/hr 5) None of these
7. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12 and when the digits of the two digit number are interchanged, the new number becomes 36 more than the original number. What is the original two-digit number?
1) 84 2) 93 3) 48 4) 39 5) Can't be determined
8. A, B and C entered into a partnership by investing Rs.64,000, Rs.52,000 and Rs.36,000 respectively. All of them invested for equal periods of time. If A got Rs.35,584 as his share of annual profit, what amount did C get as his share of annual profit?
1) Rs.20,632 2) Rs.18,296 3) Rs.21,084 4) Rs.19,768 5) Rs.20,016
9. The number of students in institutes, A and B were in the ratio of 7 : 15 in 2012. In 2013 the no. of students in Institute A increased by 25% and the no. of students in Institute B increased by 26%. Then what was the ratio of the no. of students in institute A to that in B in 2013?
1) 25 : 56 2) 24 : 55 3) 24 : 53 4) 25 : 53 5) 25 : 54
10. An employer pays Rs.26 for each day a worker works and forfeits Rs.7 for each day he is idle. At the end of 56 days if the worker got Rs.829, for how many days did the worker remain idle?
1) 21 2) 15 3) 19 4) 13 5) 17
Answers:
1-3; 2-2; 3-1; 4-3; 5-2; 6-4; 7-3; 8-5; 9-5; 10-3.
1. 6 11 31 121 601 ?
1) 3600 2) 3621 3) 3601 4) 3611 5) 3602
2. 7 11 19 35 67 ?
1) 99 2) 131 3) 9264 4) 137 5) 124
3. 8 22 64 190 568 ?
1) 1702 2) 1654 3) 1650 4) 1706 5) 1705
4. 5760 2880 960 240 48 ?
1) 6 2) 12 3) 8 4) 24 5) 16
5. 2 3 18 115 854 ?
1) 6027 2) 7767 3) 6992 4) 6913 5) 6059
6. A car covers the first 39 km of its journey in 45 minutes and the remaining 25 km in 35 minutes. What is the average speed of the car?
1) 40 km/hr 2) 64 km/hr 3) 49 km/hr 4) 48 km/hr 5) None of these
7. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12 and when the digits of the two digit number are interchanged, the new number becomes 36 more than the original number. What is the original two-digit number?
1) 84 2) 93 3) 48 4) 39 5) Can't be determined
8. A, B and C entered into a partnership by investing Rs.64,000, Rs.52,000 and Rs.36,000 respectively. All of them invested for equal periods of time. If A got Rs.35,584 as his share of annual profit, what amount did C get as his share of annual profit?
1) Rs.20,632 2) Rs.18,296 3) Rs.21,084 4) Rs.19,768 5) Rs.20,016
9. The number of students in institutes, A and B were in the ratio of 7 : 15 in 2012. In 2013 the no. of students in Institute A increased by 25% and the no. of students in Institute B increased by 26%. Then what was the ratio of the no. of students in institute A to that in B in 2013?
1) 25 : 56 2) 24 : 55 3) 24 : 53 4) 25 : 53 5) 25 : 54
10. An employer pays Rs.26 for each day a worker works and forfeits Rs.7 for each day he is idle. At the end of 56 days if the worker got Rs.829, for how many days did the worker remain idle?
1) 21 2) 15 3) 19 4) 13 5) 17
Answers:
1-3; 2-2; 3-1; 4-3; 5-2; 6-4; 7-3; 8-5; 9-5; 10-3.
English Language Bits for Bank PO Exams - Rearranging Senternces
Directions (Q. 1-5): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
(A) Special care needs to be taken to reform the other State taxes, viz state excise, motor vehicles tax, passengers, and goods tax, and stamp duty and registration fee.
(B) The introduction of GST in the indirect tax system of the Union and the State Governments and the DTC in the direct taxes of the Union Government will help establish an economically efficient, cost effective and transparent tax system.
(C) That would make the Indian tax system suitable for taking the country towards a new horizon of future growth and prosperity.
(D) It would make the Indian tax payer competitive at home as well as in the international market.
(E) Also, the other taxes at the state level need to be further reformed.
(F) It is, however, important to remove the bumps and road blocks in its introduction.
1. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) F 2) E 3) B 4) A 5) C
2. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) E 5) D
3. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) E 2) F 3) D 4) C 5) B
4. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) B 2) D 3) F 4) E 5) C
5. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?
1) C 2) A 3) B 4) D 5) F
Directions (Q. 6-10): In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.
Acid attacks, especially on women, are an issue of increasing ..(6).. In order to ..(7).. with such attacks, a three pronged ..(8).. is currently under formulation. The first is providing ..(9).. punishment to perpetrators, not only as proportionate punishment for their ..(10).. but also to deter potential offenders. The second approach is to prevent attacks by regulating access to acids. The third is constructing a compensation scheme for victims.
The Indian Penal Code did not have specific provisions to criminalise and punish acid attacks until earlier this year. If a person is convicted for throwing acid on another, and thereby causing temporary or permanent damage
or deformity, a minimum imprisonment of 10 years and a maximum of life imprisonment is now provided.
6. 1) value 2) welfare 3) gossip 4) concern 5) happening
7. 1) deal 2) do away 3) fight 4) solve 5) tussle
8. 1) dimension 2) solution 3) discussion 4) system 5) approach
9. 1) light 2) stringent 3) attractive 4) compulsory 5) serious
10. 1) performance 2) role 3) work 4) action 5) job
Answers:
1-3; 2-5; 3-2; 4-4; 5-1; 6-4; 7-1; 8-5; 9-2; 10-4.
(A) Special care needs to be taken to reform the other State taxes, viz state excise, motor vehicles tax, passengers, and goods tax, and stamp duty and registration fee.
(B) The introduction of GST in the indirect tax system of the Union and the State Governments and the DTC in the direct taxes of the Union Government will help establish an economically efficient, cost effective and transparent tax system.
(C) That would make the Indian tax system suitable for taking the country towards a new horizon of future growth and prosperity.
(D) It would make the Indian tax payer competitive at home as well as in the international market.
(E) Also, the other taxes at the state level need to be further reformed.
(F) It is, however, important to remove the bumps and road blocks in its introduction.
1. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) F 2) E 3) B 4) A 5) C
2. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) E 5) D
3. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) E 2) F 3) D 4) C 5) B
4. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) B 2) D 3) F 4) E 5) C
5. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?
1) C 2) A 3) B 4) D 5) F
Directions (Q. 6-10): In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.
Acid attacks, especially on women, are an issue of increasing ..(6).. In order to ..(7).. with such attacks, a three pronged ..(8).. is currently under formulation. The first is providing ..(9).. punishment to perpetrators, not only as proportionate punishment for their ..(10).. but also to deter potential offenders. The second approach is to prevent attacks by regulating access to acids. The third is constructing a compensation scheme for victims.
The Indian Penal Code did not have specific provisions to criminalise and punish acid attacks until earlier this year. If a person is convicted for throwing acid on another, and thereby causing temporary or permanent damage
or deformity, a minimum imprisonment of 10 years and a maximum of life imprisonment is now provided.
6. 1) value 2) welfare 3) gossip 4) concern 5) happening
7. 1) deal 2) do away 3) fight 4) solve 5) tussle
8. 1) dimension 2) solution 3) discussion 4) system 5) approach
9. 1) light 2) stringent 3) attractive 4) compulsory 5) serious
10. 1) performance 2) role 3) work 4) action 5) job
Answers:
1-3; 2-5; 3-2; 4-4; 5-1; 6-4; 7-1; 8-5; 9-2; 10-4.
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