Directions (Q. 1-10): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These blanks are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
A step by ..(1).. approach involving a measurable achievement each day is the ..(2).. effective method to get results. Each little success gives you a shot of confidence and a ..(3)..
of accomplishment that will ..(4).. sustain you in sticking to your programme. It also ..(5).. the final goal seem more ..(6).. since all you to do is put ..(7).. the same amount of effort each day. For example, if you were asked to ..(8).. a book of two hundred and fifty pages without having written anything before, this task probably would seem ..(9)... However, if you were asked to write two pages of text each day, you would have to agree that this request would be both reasonable and ..(10)...
1. 1) leap 2) jump 3) run 4) step 5) bring
2. 1) probable 2) only 3) likely 4) various 5) valiant
3. 1) sensation 2) satisfaction 3) sense 4) savour 5) time
4. 1) help 2) ensure 3) enable 4) allow 5) augment
5. 1) mars 2) makes 3) appears 4) provides 5) proves
6. 1) dependable 2) alluring 3) attractive 4) achievable 5) fascinating
7. 1) out 2) forward 3) forth 4) in 5) on
8. 1) read 2) write 3) recite 4) memorise 5) govern
9. 1) insurmountable 2) inescapable 3) intrinsic 4) innate 5) impersonal
10. 1) rational 2) remote 3) realistic 4) impending 5) invigorat
Answers:
1-4
2-2
3-3
4-1
5-2
6-4
7-3
8-2
9-1
10-3.
Showing posts with label IBPS - RRBs Study Material. Show all posts
Showing posts with label IBPS - RRBs Study Material. Show all posts
21 October 2024
English Language for IBPS Clerks POs, RRBs and Specialist Officers - Fill in the Blanks and Sentence Rearrangement
Directions (Q.1-5): In each of the following sentences there are two blanks. Below each sentence, there are five pairs of words denoted by the numbers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully correct.
1. It would be the height of ......... to say that all ......... are morally strong.
1) history, advanced
2) absurdity, erudites
3) pessimism, men
4) commitment, developed
5) nobility, sluggard
2. It is ......... upon all the employees to ......... by the rules of the institution.
1) incumbent, abide
2) based, stand
3) prevail, declare
4) emphasised, follow
5) imperative, elevate
3. The reasoning in this article is so ......... that the readers could not ......... anything.
1) tedious, make
2) monotonous, persuade
3) irrelevant, comprehend
4) incoherent, refine
5) ignominious, understand
4. Every scientist must have a sense of human ......... and ..........
1) approval, eulogy
2) dubiousness, adulation
3) initiation, incitement
4) fulfilment, dignity
5) vision, expansion
5. People are seeking a ......... that remedies all ..........
1) panacea, ailments
2) ingenuity, diseases
3) implementation, benefits
4) protocol, resolutions
5) retreat, benedictions
Directions (Q:6-10): Four words are given in each of the questions of which two are most nearly the same / opposite in mean ing. Find out the number of the correct letter combination.
6. (A) Profuse
(B) Scanty
(C) Retribution
(D) Scorn
1) B-D
2) C-A
3) C-B
4) C-D
5) A-B
7. (A) Outrage
(B) Reward
(C) Affront
(D) Risk
1) A-B
2) A-C
3) C-B
4) B-D
5) D-A
8. (A) Rejoice
(B) Resent
(C) Rival
(D) Mirth
1) C-A
2) A-B
3) C-B
4) D-B
5) D-A
9. (A) Fleeting
(B) Genial
(C) Pacify
(D) Provoke
1) D-A
2) A-C
3) C-D
4) B-A
5) B-D
10. (A) Extensive
(B) Frail
(C) Valiant
(D) Feeble
1) A-D
2) B-A
3) C-B
4) C-A
5) B-D
Directions (Q.11-15): Rearrange the following sentences in proper order and answer the questions given below them:
(A) In addition, you are likely to identify consequences you had not even thought of before.
(B) Try before you buy.
(C) By experiencing the consequences first hand, they become more meaningful.
(D) We use this memorable saying to urge you to experience the consequences of an alternative before you choose it, whenever this is feasible.
(E) If you are considering buying a van after having always owned sedans, rent one for a week or borrow a friend's.
11. Which is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
12. Which is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) B 2) A 3) D 4) C 5) E
13. Which is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) D 2) A 3) B 4) E 5) C
14. Which is the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) B 2) A 3) C 4) D 5) E
15. Which is the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5
Answers:
1-2
2-1
3-3
4-4
5-1
6-5: opp
7-2: same
8-5: same
9-3: opp
10-5: same
(Q.11-15): B D E C A
11-2
12-3
13-4
14-3
15-1.
1. It would be the height of ......... to say that all ......... are morally strong.
1) history, advanced
2) absurdity, erudites
3) pessimism, men
4) commitment, developed
5) nobility, sluggard
2. It is ......... upon all the employees to ......... by the rules of the institution.
1) incumbent, abide
2) based, stand
3) prevail, declare
4) emphasised, follow
5) imperative, elevate
3. The reasoning in this article is so ......... that the readers could not ......... anything.
1) tedious, make
2) monotonous, persuade
3) irrelevant, comprehend
4) incoherent, refine
5) ignominious, understand
4. Every scientist must have a sense of human ......... and ..........
1) approval, eulogy
2) dubiousness, adulation
3) initiation, incitement
4) fulfilment, dignity
5) vision, expansion
5. People are seeking a ......... that remedies all ..........
1) panacea, ailments
2) ingenuity, diseases
3) implementation, benefits
4) protocol, resolutions
5) retreat, benedictions
Directions (Q:6-10): Four words are given in each of the questions of which two are most nearly the same / opposite in mean ing. Find out the number of the correct letter combination.
6. (A) Profuse
(B) Scanty
(C) Retribution
(D) Scorn
1) B-D
2) C-A
3) C-B
4) C-D
5) A-B
7. (A) Outrage
(B) Reward
(C) Affront
(D) Risk
1) A-B
2) A-C
3) C-B
4) B-D
5) D-A
8. (A) Rejoice
(B) Resent
(C) Rival
(D) Mirth
1) C-A
2) A-B
3) C-B
4) D-B
5) D-A
9. (A) Fleeting
(B) Genial
(C) Pacify
(D) Provoke
1) D-A
2) A-C
3) C-D
4) B-A
5) B-D
10. (A) Extensive
(B) Frail
(C) Valiant
(D) Feeble
1) A-D
2) B-A
3) C-B
4) C-A
5) B-D
Directions (Q.11-15): Rearrange the following sentences in proper order and answer the questions given below them:
(A) In addition, you are likely to identify consequences you had not even thought of before.
(B) Try before you buy.
(C) By experiencing the consequences first hand, they become more meaningful.
(D) We use this memorable saying to urge you to experience the consequences of an alternative before you choose it, whenever this is feasible.
(E) If you are considering buying a van after having always owned sedans, rent one for a week or borrow a friend's.
11. Which is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
12. Which is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) B 2) A 3) D 4) C 5) E
13. Which is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) D 2) A 3) B 4) E 5) C
14. Which is the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) B 2) A 3) C 4) D 5) E
15. Which is the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5
Answers:
1-2
2-1
3-3
4-4
5-1
6-5: opp
7-2: same
8-5: same
9-3: opp
10-5: same
(Q.11-15): B D E C A
11-2
12-3
13-4
14-3
15-1.
English Language - Correction of Sentences for IBPS Clerks, POs, RRBs and Specialist Officers - 2016
Directions (Q.1-5): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it.
The error, if any in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5).
1. My teacher is enough pleased (1)/ with my sincerity (2)/ and devotion to duty (3)/ and recommended my promotion. (4)/ No error (5).
2. Kiran is not by no means (1)/ as efficient as his friend. (2)/ Hence his friend receives (3)/ accolades from all the Directors. (4)/ No error (5).
3. As per his promise (1)/ Ravi carried out (2)/ the entire work (3)/ quicker than we expected. (4)/ No error (5).
4. All the delegates (1)/ spoke at length (2)/ regarding the positive impact of the Scheme
(3)/ at the meeting last night. (4)/ No error (5).
5. The members of the family (1)/ do not remember (2)/ ever having paid (3)/ a visit to the holy shrine. (4)/ No error (5).
Directions (Q: 6-10): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3), 4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase in bold to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is mark (5) as the answer.
6. Prasath accompanied with his friends and reached the destination safely.
1) accompanied his friends
2) accompanied at his friends
3) accompanied about his friends
4) accompanied for his friends
5) No correction required
7. Dravid has enough of experience and can be taken as a coach.
1) Dravid had enough of experience
2) Dravid experience enough
3) Dravid has enough experience
4) Dravid's enough of experience
5) No correction required
8. Many participants combated the views of the speaker.
1) combated on the views
2) combated at the views
3) combated over the views
4) combated upon the views
5) No correction required
9. Your error does not admit of an excuse.
1) do not admit of an excuse
2) does not admit an excuse
3) may not admit an excuse
4) does admit an excuse
5) No correction required
10. We believe in the existence of God.
1) We believe on
2) We believe over
3) We believe for
4) We are believing on God
5) No correction require
Answers:
1-1; It should be 'pleased enough'
2-1; It should be 'any means'
3-4; It should be 'more quickly'
4-5; No error;
5-5; No error
6-1
7-3
8-5
9-5
10-5.
The error, if any in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5).
1. My teacher is enough pleased (1)/ with my sincerity (2)/ and devotion to duty (3)/ and recommended my promotion. (4)/ No error (5).
2. Kiran is not by no means (1)/ as efficient as his friend. (2)/ Hence his friend receives (3)/ accolades from all the Directors. (4)/ No error (5).
3. As per his promise (1)/ Ravi carried out (2)/ the entire work (3)/ quicker than we expected. (4)/ No error (5).
4. All the delegates (1)/ spoke at length (2)/ regarding the positive impact of the Scheme
(3)/ at the meeting last night. (4)/ No error (5).
5. The members of the family (1)/ do not remember (2)/ ever having paid (3)/ a visit to the holy shrine. (4)/ No error (5).
Directions (Q: 6-10): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3), 4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase in bold to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is mark (5) as the answer.
6. Prasath accompanied with his friends and reached the destination safely.
1) accompanied his friends
2) accompanied at his friends
3) accompanied about his friends
4) accompanied for his friends
5) No correction required
7. Dravid has enough of experience and can be taken as a coach.
1) Dravid had enough of experience
2) Dravid experience enough
3) Dravid has enough experience
4) Dravid's enough of experience
5) No correction required
8. Many participants combated the views of the speaker.
1) combated on the views
2) combated at the views
3) combated over the views
4) combated upon the views
5) No correction required
9. Your error does not admit of an excuse.
1) do not admit of an excuse
2) does not admit an excuse
3) may not admit an excuse
4) does admit an excuse
5) No correction required
10. We believe in the existence of God.
1) We believe on
2) We believe over
3) We believe for
4) We are believing on God
5) No correction require
Answers:
1-1; It should be 'pleased enough'
2-1; It should be 'any means'
3-4; It should be 'more quickly'
4-5; No error;
5-5; No error
6-1
7-3
8-5
9-5
10-5.
20 October 2024
Latest General Awareness Bits for IBPS Clerks, POs, RRBs and Specialist Officers - 2016
1. Government of India on 28 September 2024 asked the public sector banks to use the NEIN database to check the antecedents of borrowers. In this context, NEIN stands for..........?
1) National End Intelligence Network
2) National Economic Intelligence Network
3) National Economic Intolerance Network
4) National Encrypted Intelligence Network
5) National Elevated Intelligence Network
2. Citibank likely to shut down some India branches as the most of customers using
internet for their daily banking transactions. Where is the head quarters of Citi bank?
1) UK 2) France 3) USA 4) Germany 5) Hong kong
3. Who was recently appointed as the Chairman of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board?
1) Sushil Chandra 2) Anadi Ramlingam
3) MS Sahoo 4) Alka Sirohi 5) Ravi Reddy
4. RBI decided, in consultation with the Government of India, that the limit for WMA for the second half of the financial year 2016-17 (October 2016 ñ March 2017) will be Rs. 25,000 crore. In this context, WMA stands for...
1) Write and Means Advances
2) Ways and Medium Advances
3) Ways and Means Advances
4) Ways and Means Allocations
5) Ways and Mode Advances
5. RBI released the Report of the Internal Working Group (IWG) on Rationalisation of
Branch Authorisation Policy on 6 October 2016. The Group is chaired by....
1) Aravind Pangariaya 2) Amitab Kanth
3) Lily Vadera 4) A K Mathur 5) Tarun Ramadorai
6. On 26 September 2016, which state government decided to write off all farm loans
taken from co-operative Banks up benefitting 7000 farmers?
1) AP 2) Telengana 3) UP
4) Haryana 5) Puducherry
7. Which cricketer appointed as Brand Ambassador of Punjab National Bank recently?
1) Sachin Tendulkar 2) Yuvraj Singh
3) Virat Kohli 4) Shikar Dhawan 5) Ajyanke Rahane
8. Who heads the committee constituted to assess ground situation at Cauvery basin appointed on 5 October 2016?
1) Uma Bharathi 2) Vijay Goel
3) GS Jha 4) Bachawath 5) Dipak Mishra
9. On 23 September 2016, Prime minister approved the constitution of two committees for the commemoration of the birth centenary of Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay. The national Committee headed by PM and the Executive Committee headed by...
1) Finance Minister 2) Water Resources Minister
3) Culture and Tourism Minister 4) Home minister
10. Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay birthday 25 September observed as...
1) Antyodaya Diwas 2) Suparipalan Din
3) Samvidhan Diwas 4) Swatchatha Diwas
5) Bharath Rastra Diwas
11. Cauvery Supervisory Committee strictly adhere to the final order of Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal (CWDT) while deciding on the quantum of the river's water to be released to Tamil Nadu. The committee headed by...
1) Swatantra Kumar 2) Anil Dave
3) Shashi Shekhar 4) M.B.Patil 5) S.P. Velumani
12. On 16 September 2016, who was appointed as the Chairman of the Parliamentary committee on Home affairs?
1) Gulam Nabi Azad 2) L.K.Advani
3) Sitharam Yechury 4) Rajnath Singh
5) Dr.P Chidambaram
13. New chairman of the BCCI Selection Committee is...
1) Anurag Takur 2) Justice Lodha
3) Markandeya Katju 4) MSK Prasad 5) Venkatesh Prasad
14. To register young voters, the Election Commission of India collaborated with which social networking site on 5 October 2016?
1) LinkedIn 2) Twitter 3) Allo
4) WeChat 5) Facebook
15. Who was recently appointed the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission?
1) Sunil Chnadra 2) J Satyanarayana
3) Alka Sirohi 4) Amitab Kanth 5) Prakash Javedkar
16. Who headed the commission that was constituted to probe the controversial land deals in Gurgaon including Robert Vadra`s land deals?
1) Justice AK Mathur 2) Justice RKMathur
3) Justice SN Dhingra 4) Justice RM Lodha
5) Justice Markandeya Katju
Answers:
1-2
2-3
3-3
4-3
5-3
6-5
7-3
8-3
9-5
10-1
11-3
12-5
13-4
14-5
15-3
16-3.
1) National End Intelligence Network
2) National Economic Intelligence Network
3) National Economic Intolerance Network
4) National Encrypted Intelligence Network
5) National Elevated Intelligence Network
2. Citibank likely to shut down some India branches as the most of customers using
internet for their daily banking transactions. Where is the head quarters of Citi bank?
1) UK 2) France 3) USA 4) Germany 5) Hong kong
3. Who was recently appointed as the Chairman of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board?
1) Sushil Chandra 2) Anadi Ramlingam
3) MS Sahoo 4) Alka Sirohi 5) Ravi Reddy
4. RBI decided, in consultation with the Government of India, that the limit for WMA for the second half of the financial year 2016-17 (October 2016 ñ March 2017) will be Rs. 25,000 crore. In this context, WMA stands for...
1) Write and Means Advances
2) Ways and Medium Advances
3) Ways and Means Advances
4) Ways and Means Allocations
5) Ways and Mode Advances
5. RBI released the Report of the Internal Working Group (IWG) on Rationalisation of
Branch Authorisation Policy on 6 October 2016. The Group is chaired by....
1) Aravind Pangariaya 2) Amitab Kanth
3) Lily Vadera 4) A K Mathur 5) Tarun Ramadorai
6. On 26 September 2016, which state government decided to write off all farm loans
taken from co-operative Banks up benefitting 7000 farmers?
1) AP 2) Telengana 3) UP
4) Haryana 5) Puducherry
7. Which cricketer appointed as Brand Ambassador of Punjab National Bank recently?
1) Sachin Tendulkar 2) Yuvraj Singh
3) Virat Kohli 4) Shikar Dhawan 5) Ajyanke Rahane
8. Who heads the committee constituted to assess ground situation at Cauvery basin appointed on 5 October 2016?
1) Uma Bharathi 2) Vijay Goel
3) GS Jha 4) Bachawath 5) Dipak Mishra
9. On 23 September 2016, Prime minister approved the constitution of two committees for the commemoration of the birth centenary of Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay. The national Committee headed by PM and the Executive Committee headed by...
1) Finance Minister 2) Water Resources Minister
3) Culture and Tourism Minister 4) Home minister
10. Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay birthday 25 September observed as...
1) Antyodaya Diwas 2) Suparipalan Din
3) Samvidhan Diwas 4) Swatchatha Diwas
5) Bharath Rastra Diwas
11. Cauvery Supervisory Committee strictly adhere to the final order of Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal (CWDT) while deciding on the quantum of the river's water to be released to Tamil Nadu. The committee headed by...
1) Swatantra Kumar 2) Anil Dave
3) Shashi Shekhar 4) M.B.Patil 5) S.P. Velumani
12. On 16 September 2016, who was appointed as the Chairman of the Parliamentary committee on Home affairs?
1) Gulam Nabi Azad 2) L.K.Advani
3) Sitharam Yechury 4) Rajnath Singh
5) Dr.P Chidambaram
13. New chairman of the BCCI Selection Committee is...
1) Anurag Takur 2) Justice Lodha
3) Markandeya Katju 4) MSK Prasad 5) Venkatesh Prasad
14. To register young voters, the Election Commission of India collaborated with which social networking site on 5 October 2016?
1) LinkedIn 2) Twitter 3) Allo
4) WeChat 5) Facebook
15. Who was recently appointed the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission?
1) Sunil Chnadra 2) J Satyanarayana
3) Alka Sirohi 4) Amitab Kanth 5) Prakash Javedkar
16. Who headed the commission that was constituted to probe the controversial land deals in Gurgaon including Robert Vadra`s land deals?
1) Justice AK Mathur 2) Justice RKMathur
3) Justice SN Dhingra 4) Justice RM Lodha
5) Justice Markandeya Katju
Answers:
1-2
2-3
3-3
4-3
5-3
6-5
7-3
8-3
9-5
10-1
11-3
12-5
13-4
14-5
15-3
16-3.
Latest General Awareness Questions for IBPS POs, Clerks, RRBs and Specialist Officers - 2016
1. On 6 October 2016, the Operating Guidelines for Payment banks issued. The guidelines for Licensing of Payment banks earlier passed by RBI on ...
1) 1 April 2024 2) 26 January 2024
3) 1 January 2024 4) 21 November 2024
5) 27 November 2024
2. As per the operating guidelines issued for payment banks on 6 October 2016, Minimum
Capital Requirement fixed at...
1) 15% 2) 11.5% 3) 6% 4) 7.5% 5) 8.2%
3. Payment Banks are allowed to participate in the call money and CBLO market as both borrowers and lenders, subject to the limit on call money borrowings as applicable to scheduled commercial banks. In this context, CBLO stands for...?
1) collateralized borrowing and lending obligation
2) correlative borrowing and lending obligation
3) collateralized beginning and lending obligation
4) collateralized borrowing and leverage obligation
5) central borrowing and lending obligation
4. As per the guidelines issued on 6 October 2024 by RBI, Payment Banks will not be permitted to lend to any person including their directors. However, they may lend to ... out of the bank's own funds, as per a board approved policy outlining the caps on such loans.
1) Their own employees 2) local business men
3) Income tax payees 4) Small transport companies
5) Share market brokers
5. The aim of RBI to permit the Payment banks is...?
1) to boost Financial inclusion
2) to allow the payments/ remittance services to migrant labour workforce
3) to help the low house holds
4) to help the small entities to do banking business
5) All of above
6. The license of Payment banks can be given to...
1) Existing non-bank Pre-paid Payment Instrument (PPI) issuers
2) Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs)
3) corporate Business Correspondents(BCs)
4) super-market chains
5) All of above
7. The equity capital of Payment banks is...?
1) Rs.10 crore 2) Rs.700 crore
3) Rs.1000 crore 4) Rs.500 crore
5) Rs.100 crore
8. Payment banks not allowed to....?
1) issue credit card 2) issue debit card
3) issue cheque book
4) have remittance services
5) provide accounts to women
9. Promoter's minimum initial contribution to the paid-up equity capital of payments bank shall
at least be .... for the first five years
1) 40% 2) 26% 3) 15% 4) 25% 5) 49%
10. Payments banks can give savings accounts to customers. But in the single customer account, the maximum balance allowed not more than....?
1) Rs. 1 Lakh 2) Rs.75,000 3) Rs.2 Lakh
4) Rs. 5 Lakh 5) customer of bank can maintain any balance
11. The Foreign shareholding in the payments bank allowed up to....?
1)10% 2) 35% 3) 49% 4) 26%
5) as per the FDI policy for private sector banks as amended from time to time
12. On 4 February 2015, RBI appointed the External Advisory Committee for Payments
Banks under the chairmanship of...?
1) Raghuram Rajan 2) Shyamal Gopinath
3) Urjit Patel 4) Narasimham
5) Nachiket Mor
13. First domestic Bank to open a branch in the city of Yangon, Myanmar is...?
1) SBI 2) Corporation Bank
3) Canara Bank 4) Andhra Bank 5) PNB
14. Union Government on 1 October 2024 gave a year extension to the Chairman of SBI.
She is....?
1) Arundhati Bhattacharya
2) Usha Anantha Subramanyam
3) Chitra Ramkrishna
4) Lalitha Kumaramangalam
5) Naina Lal Kidwai
15. In the news papers it is reported that SBI may sell away 5% stake in SBI Life which
may fetch the bank as much as Rs.1,950 crore. Who is the partner of SBI in SBI Life?
1) Prudential (USA) 2) Lombard (Canada)
3) IAG (Australia) 4) PNB Paribas (France)
5) ERGO (Germany)
16. Which bank got the Best bank got award in Retail Banking category, in the 10th edition
of Dun & Bradstreet's India's Top Banks & Banking Awards 2016?
1) ICICI 2) Andhra Bank
3) SBI 4) PNB 5) Yes Bank
17. Which High Court declined to grant a stay to the acquisition process of State Bank of
Travancore (SBT) by SBI on 8 October 2016?
1) AP 2) Karnataka 3) Kerala
4) Tamil Nadu 5) Delhi
18. Punch Lines of Banks given. The wrong combination is...?
1) SBI - The name you can bank upon
2) Andhra bank-Where India Banks
3) Bank of India-Relationship beyond banking
4) Bank of Baroda-India's International Bank
5) Indian Overseas Bank-Good People to Grow With
19. Which International monetary organisation sanctioned Rs. 980 crore to dredge the Brahmaputra as an initiative to develop waterways to Bangladesh and to other South East Asian countries?
1) Asian Development Bank 2) AIIB
3) World bank 4) IMF 5) New Development Bank
20. Acceptance of debit cards in shops set to get a big boost as RBI ready to set up ADF. The fund is expected to subsidise setting up of point of sales terminals or machines that enable acceptance of credit cards in areas where banks do not consider it viable to do so. In this context, ADF stands for...
1) Acceptance Development Fund
2) Agreement Development Fund
3) Acceptance Donor Fund
4) Acceptance Donation Fund
5) Admire Development Fund
Answers:
1-5
2-1
3-1
4-1
5-5
6-5
7-5
8-1
9-1
10-1
11-5
12-5
13-1
14-1
15-4
16-3
17-3
18-1
19-3
20-1.
1) 1 April 2024 2) 26 January 2024
3) 1 January 2024 4) 21 November 2024
5) 27 November 2024
2. As per the operating guidelines issued for payment banks on 6 October 2016, Minimum
Capital Requirement fixed at...
1) 15% 2) 11.5% 3) 6% 4) 7.5% 5) 8.2%
3. Payment Banks are allowed to participate in the call money and CBLO market as both borrowers and lenders, subject to the limit on call money borrowings as applicable to scheduled commercial banks. In this context, CBLO stands for...?
1) collateralized borrowing and lending obligation
2) correlative borrowing and lending obligation
3) collateralized beginning and lending obligation
4) collateralized borrowing and leverage obligation
5) central borrowing and lending obligation
4. As per the guidelines issued on 6 October 2024 by RBI, Payment Banks will not be permitted to lend to any person including their directors. However, they may lend to ... out of the bank's own funds, as per a board approved policy outlining the caps on such loans.
1) Their own employees 2) local business men
3) Income tax payees 4) Small transport companies
5) Share market brokers
5. The aim of RBI to permit the Payment banks is...?
1) to boost Financial inclusion
2) to allow the payments/ remittance services to migrant labour workforce
3) to help the low house holds
4) to help the small entities to do banking business
5) All of above
6. The license of Payment banks can be given to...
1) Existing non-bank Pre-paid Payment Instrument (PPI) issuers
2) Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs)
3) corporate Business Correspondents(BCs)
4) super-market chains
5) All of above
7. The equity capital of Payment banks is...?
1) Rs.10 crore 2) Rs.700 crore
3) Rs.1000 crore 4) Rs.500 crore
5) Rs.100 crore
8. Payment banks not allowed to....?
1) issue credit card 2) issue debit card
3) issue cheque book
4) have remittance services
5) provide accounts to women
9. Promoter's minimum initial contribution to the paid-up equity capital of payments bank shall
at least be .... for the first five years
1) 40% 2) 26% 3) 15% 4) 25% 5) 49%
10. Payments banks can give savings accounts to customers. But in the single customer account, the maximum balance allowed not more than....?
1) Rs. 1 Lakh 2) Rs.75,000 3) Rs.2 Lakh
4) Rs. 5 Lakh 5) customer of bank can maintain any balance
11. The Foreign shareholding in the payments bank allowed up to....?
1)10% 2) 35% 3) 49% 4) 26%
5) as per the FDI policy for private sector banks as amended from time to time
12. On 4 February 2015, RBI appointed the External Advisory Committee for Payments
Banks under the chairmanship of...?
1) Raghuram Rajan 2) Shyamal Gopinath
3) Urjit Patel 4) Narasimham
5) Nachiket Mor
13. First domestic Bank to open a branch in the city of Yangon, Myanmar is...?
1) SBI 2) Corporation Bank
3) Canara Bank 4) Andhra Bank 5) PNB
14. Union Government on 1 October 2024 gave a year extension to the Chairman of SBI.
She is....?
1) Arundhati Bhattacharya
2) Usha Anantha Subramanyam
3) Chitra Ramkrishna
4) Lalitha Kumaramangalam
5) Naina Lal Kidwai
15. In the news papers it is reported that SBI may sell away 5% stake in SBI Life which
may fetch the bank as much as Rs.1,950 crore. Who is the partner of SBI in SBI Life?
1) Prudential (USA) 2) Lombard (Canada)
3) IAG (Australia) 4) PNB Paribas (France)
5) ERGO (Germany)
16. Which bank got the Best bank got award in Retail Banking category, in the 10th edition
of Dun & Bradstreet's India's Top Banks & Banking Awards 2016?
1) ICICI 2) Andhra Bank
3) SBI 4) PNB 5) Yes Bank
17. Which High Court declined to grant a stay to the acquisition process of State Bank of
Travancore (SBT) by SBI on 8 October 2016?
1) AP 2) Karnataka 3) Kerala
4) Tamil Nadu 5) Delhi
18. Punch Lines of Banks given. The wrong combination is...?
1) SBI - The name you can bank upon
2) Andhra bank-Where India Banks
3) Bank of India-Relationship beyond banking
4) Bank of Baroda-India's International Bank
5) Indian Overseas Bank-Good People to Grow With
19. Which International monetary organisation sanctioned Rs. 980 crore to dredge the Brahmaputra as an initiative to develop waterways to Bangladesh and to other South East Asian countries?
1) Asian Development Bank 2) AIIB
3) World bank 4) IMF 5) New Development Bank
20. Acceptance of debit cards in shops set to get a big boost as RBI ready to set up ADF. The fund is expected to subsidise setting up of point of sales terminals or machines that enable acceptance of credit cards in areas where banks do not consider it viable to do so. In this context, ADF stands for...
1) Acceptance Development Fund
2) Agreement Development Fund
3) Acceptance Donor Fund
4) Acceptance Donation Fund
5) Admire Development Fund
Answers:
1-5
2-1
3-1
4-1
5-5
6-5
7-5
8-1
9-1
10-1
11-5
12-5
13-1
14-1
15-4
16-3
17-3
18-1
19-3
20-1.
13 September 2024
IBPS - RRBs CWE - 5 for Office Assistants and Officers Recruitment - Schedule of Dates 2016
Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has announced CWE for the recruitment of officers (Scale 1, 2, 3) an office assistants (multipurpose) in regional rural banks (RRBs).
Details of bank wise vacancies in various states and union territories are available on the IBPS website at www.ibps.in . Following is the schedule of online activity for IBPS - RRBs CWE - V for office assistants and officers posts - 2016.
1) Online application process: 14 September to 30 September 2024
2) Online Preliminary exam: Officers Scale 1 - October 2016 and Office Assistants - November 2016.
3) Results of Online Preliminary Exam: Officer Scale 1 - November 2016, Office Assistants - December 2016.
4) Online Exam - Main: Officers Scale 1, 2 and 3: 11 December 2016, Office Assistants - 18 December 2016.
5) Result of Main Exam: December 2016.
6) Interviews for Officers Posts: January 2017.
Details of bank wise vacancies in various states and union territories are available on the IBPS website at www.ibps.in . Following is the schedule of online activity for IBPS - RRBs CWE - V for office assistants and officers posts - 2016.
1) Online application process: 14 September to 30 September 2024
2) Online Preliminary exam: Officers Scale 1 - October 2016 and Office Assistants - November 2016.
3) Results of Online Preliminary Exam: Officer Scale 1 - November 2016, Office Assistants - December 2016.
4) Online Exam - Main: Officers Scale 1, 2 and 3: 11 December 2016, Office Assistants - 18 December 2016.
5) Result of Main Exam: December 2016.
6) Interviews for Officers Posts: January 2017.
11 September 2024
IBPS - RRBs Office Assistants Multipurpose Bank Wise Vacancies for All States - 2016
Following are details of bank wise vacancies of Office Assistants posts to be filled through IBPS - RRB (Regional Rural Banks). The online application process commences from 14th September 2016 and the same will be closed on 30th September 2016. There are 8824 vacancies of office assistants (multipurpose) in various banks across the country.
IBPS - RRBs Office Assistants and Officers Recruitment 2016 - Apply Online Before 30th September
Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has announced Common Recruitment Process - 2016 for Recruitment of Officers (Scale - I, II and III) and Office Assistants (Multipurpose) in Regional Rural Banks (RRBs). Following are details of state wise / bank wise vacancies, qualifications and application procedure:
Office Assistants (Multipurpose): Degree in any discipline and proficiency in local language.
Officer Scale I: Degree in any discipline and preference will be given to candidates with Agriculture / allied degrees. Candidates also need computer proficiency.
Officer Scale II (General Banking Officers): Degree in any discipline with at least 50 percent marks. Preference will be given to candidates with degree in Agriculture and related subject.
Officer Scale II Specialist Officers: Candidates need Degree in Computers / IT / Electronics/ CA/ Law / MBA / Agriculture or allied subjects.
Officer Scale III: Should have degree in any disciplines with at least 50 percent marks and candidates from Agriculture or allied subject background will be preferred.
Interested candidates can apply online through IBPS website at www.ibps.in from 14th September 2016 to 30th September 2016. The details of bank wise / state wise/ post wise vacancies vacancies are available on the IBPS website.
Office Assistants (Multipurpose): Degree in any discipline and proficiency in local language.
Officer Scale I: Degree in any discipline and preference will be given to candidates with Agriculture / allied degrees. Candidates also need computer proficiency.
Officer Scale II (General Banking Officers): Degree in any discipline with at least 50 percent marks. Preference will be given to candidates with degree in Agriculture and related subject.
Officer Scale II Specialist Officers: Candidates need Degree in Computers / IT / Electronics/ CA/ Law / MBA / Agriculture or allied subjects.
Officer Scale III: Should have degree in any disciplines with at least 50 percent marks and candidates from Agriculture or allied subject background will be preferred.
Interested candidates can apply online through IBPS website at www.ibps.in from 14th September 2016 to 30th September 2016. The details of bank wise / state wise/ post wise vacancies vacancies are available on the IBPS website.
25 November 2024
Banking Knowledge for IBPS and SBI Recruitment Exams
Banking Knowledge / Banking Awareness is one of the important sections in IBPS and SBI and other bank recruitment examinations in India. The section includes questions from history of banking, evolution and latest developments in Banking in India. The following material is useful for all banks exams.
1. First India bank Got ISO : Canara Bank
2. First Governor of RBI : Mr. Osborne Smith
3. First Indian governor of RBI: Mr. C D Deshmukh
4. First Bank to Introduce ATM in India : HSBC (Mumbai in 1987)
5. First Bank to Introduce Cheque system in India : Bengal Bank
6. First Bank to introduce Internet Banking : ICICI
7. First Bank to introduce Mutual Fund : State Bank of India
8. First Bank to introduce Credit Card in India : Central Bank of India
9. First Bank Set Up in India : Bank of Hindustan in 1770
10. First Joint Stock Bank of British India : State Bank of India
11. First Joint Stock Bank of India : Allahabad Bank
12. First Indian Bank started with Indian capital / indigenous bank of India : Punjab National Bank
13. First Regional Rural Bank name Prathama Grameen Bank Was started by : Syndicate Bank
14. HSBC : Hongkong and Shanghai Banking Corporation
15. ICICI: Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India
16. HDFC: Housing Development Finance Corporation.
1. First India bank Got ISO : Canara Bank
2. First Governor of RBI : Mr. Osborne Smith
3. First Indian governor of RBI: Mr. C D Deshmukh
4. First Bank to Introduce ATM in India : HSBC (Mumbai in 1987)
5. First Bank to Introduce Cheque system in India : Bengal Bank
6. First Bank to introduce Internet Banking : ICICI
7. First Bank to introduce Mutual Fund : State Bank of India
8. First Bank to introduce Credit Card in India : Central Bank of India
9. First Bank Set Up in India : Bank of Hindustan in 1770
10. First Joint Stock Bank of British India : State Bank of India
11. First Joint Stock Bank of India : Allahabad Bank
12. First Indian Bank started with Indian capital / indigenous bank of India : Punjab National Bank
13. First Regional Rural Bank name Prathama Grameen Bank Was started by : Syndicate Bank
14. HSBC : Hongkong and Shanghai Banking Corporation
15. ICICI: Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India
16. HDFC: Housing Development Finance Corporation.
15 September 2024
Computer Knowledge Mock Test for IBPS and SBI Clerks and PO Recruitments
Computer Knowledge has been a crucial part of IBPS and SBI Clerks and Probationary Officers (POs) exams. The candidates are expected to have basic knowledge of computers and programmes such as MS Word, Excel, Power Point, etc. The questions will be related to the application knowledge of these topics. Here are some model questions for your practice. See answers at the end of the questions.
1. An online backing storage system capable of storing larger quantities of data is .....
1) CPU 2) Memory 3) Secondary storage
4) Mass storage 5) Temporary storage
2. ROM stands for ............
1) Read Only Memory
2) Random Open Memory
3) Read Open Memory
4) Random Only Memory
5) Ready Only Memory
3. Trackball is an example of a/ an....
1) programming device 2) pointing device
3) output device 4) software device 5) printing device
4. A page break means .........
1) breaking a page of the document into smaller parts
2) starting the next part of the document on a new page
3) breaking a page of the document into small sentences
4) breaking a page of the document into small paragraphs
5) None of these
5. ............ of the worksheet appear vertically and are identified by letters at the top of the worksheet window.
1) Rows 2) Cells 3) Columns 4) Headings 5) Range
6. Which of the following operations is not performed by computer?
1) Inputting 2) Processing
3) Controlling 4) Understanding 5) Outputting
7. BIT stands for ..........
1) Built In Tasks 2) Binary Digit
3) Before Instructed Task
4) Before Interpreting Task
5) Before Initial Task
8. The keys on the keyboard which may be programmed to do special tasks are referred to as
1) Function keys 2) Arrow keys
3) Page Up and Page Down keys
4) Shift and Alt keys 5) None of these
9. What is the shortcut key for centering the text selected by the user in Word?
1) CTRL + A 2) CTRL + B 3) CTRL + C
4) CTRL + D 5) CTRL + E
10. Excel is a ............
1) word processing program 2) game
3) database application
4) spreadsheet program
5) presentation program
11. Which of the following statements is valid?
1) 1 KB = 1024 bits
2) 1 MB = 2048 bits
3) 1 MB = 1000 kilobits
4) 1 KB = 1000 bytes
5) 1 MB = 1024 kilobytes
12. ALU is...
1) Access Logic Unit 2) Array Logic Unit
3) Application Logic unit 4) Artificial Logic Unit
5) Arithmetic Logic Unit
13. A storage device that stores the same data on several different disks so if one
gets damaged, another one will have the same data is referred to as ............
1) RAID 2) magnetic tape
3) magnetic disk 4) floppy disk
5) None of these
14. Which of the following is not a term pertaining to WORD?
1) Delete 2) Edit 3) Copy
4) Slide show 5) None of these
15. Excel documents are stored as files called .............
1) workforce 2) worksheets
3) worktables 4) workgroups 5) workbooks
16. A computer programmer ............
1) does all the thinking for a computer
2) can enter input data quickly
3) can operate all types of compute equipments
4) can draw only flowchart 5) is not a useful person
17. Which of the following categories would include a printer and a monitor?
1) Storage Devices 2) Input Devices
3) Pointing Devices 4) Output Devices 5) Scanning
18. Software turns data into ............
1) documents 2) information 3) pages
4) websites 5) None of these
19. Which words in a WORD document can be displayed colour?
1) only the title
2) all words but a colour printer is essential
3) all words 4) only the header and footer
5) None of these
20. A cookie ...........
1) stores information about the user's web activity
2) stores software developed by the user
3) stores the password of the user
4) stores the commands used by the user
5) None of these
Answers: 1-4; 2-1; 3-2; 4-2; 5-3; 6-4; 7-2; 8-1; 9-5; 10-4; 11-5; 12-5; 13-1; 14-4; 15-2; 16-1; 17-4; 18-2; 19-3; 20-1.
1. An online backing storage system capable of storing larger quantities of data is .....
1) CPU 2) Memory 3) Secondary storage
4) Mass storage 5) Temporary storage
2. ROM stands for ............
1) Read Only Memory
2) Random Open Memory
3) Read Open Memory
4) Random Only Memory
5) Ready Only Memory
3. Trackball is an example of a/ an....
1) programming device 2) pointing device
3) output device 4) software device 5) printing device
4. A page break means .........
1) breaking a page of the document into smaller parts
2) starting the next part of the document on a new page
3) breaking a page of the document into small sentences
4) breaking a page of the document into small paragraphs
5) None of these
5. ............ of the worksheet appear vertically and are identified by letters at the top of the worksheet window.
1) Rows 2) Cells 3) Columns 4) Headings 5) Range
6. Which of the following operations is not performed by computer?
1) Inputting 2) Processing
3) Controlling 4) Understanding 5) Outputting
7. BIT stands for ..........
1) Built In Tasks 2) Binary Digit
3) Before Instructed Task
4) Before Interpreting Task
5) Before Initial Task
8. The keys on the keyboard which may be programmed to do special tasks are referred to as
1) Function keys 2) Arrow keys
3) Page Up and Page Down keys
4) Shift and Alt keys 5) None of these
9. What is the shortcut key for centering the text selected by the user in Word?
1) CTRL + A 2) CTRL + B 3) CTRL + C
4) CTRL + D 5) CTRL + E
10. Excel is a ............
1) word processing program 2) game
3) database application
4) spreadsheet program
5) presentation program
11. Which of the following statements is valid?
1) 1 KB = 1024 bits
2) 1 MB = 2048 bits
3) 1 MB = 1000 kilobits
4) 1 KB = 1000 bytes
5) 1 MB = 1024 kilobytes
12. ALU is...
1) Access Logic Unit 2) Array Logic Unit
3) Application Logic unit 4) Artificial Logic Unit
5) Arithmetic Logic Unit
13. A storage device that stores the same data on several different disks so if one
gets damaged, another one will have the same data is referred to as ............
1) RAID 2) magnetic tape
3) magnetic disk 4) floppy disk
5) None of these
14. Which of the following is not a term pertaining to WORD?
1) Delete 2) Edit 3) Copy
4) Slide show 5) None of these
15. Excel documents are stored as files called .............
1) workforce 2) worksheets
3) worktables 4) workgroups 5) workbooks
16. A computer programmer ............
1) does all the thinking for a computer
2) can enter input data quickly
3) can operate all types of compute equipments
4) can draw only flowchart 5) is not a useful person
17. Which of the following categories would include a printer and a monitor?
1) Storage Devices 2) Input Devices
3) Pointing Devices 4) Output Devices 5) Scanning
18. Software turns data into ............
1) documents 2) information 3) pages
4) websites 5) None of these
19. Which words in a WORD document can be displayed colour?
1) only the title
2) all words but a colour printer is essential
3) all words 4) only the header and footer
5) None of these
20. A cookie ...........
1) stores information about the user's web activity
2) stores software developed by the user
3) stores the password of the user
4) stores the commands used by the user
5) None of these
Answers: 1-4; 2-1; 3-2; 4-2; 5-3; 6-4; 7-2; 8-1; 9-5; 10-4; 11-5; 12-5; 13-1; 14-4; 15-2; 16-1; 17-4; 18-2; 19-3; 20-1.
30 July 2024
IBPS - RRBs English Previous Questions - Based on Memory
Directions (181 - 190): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of the part is the answer. If there is 'No error', the answer is (5). (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
181. People who play (1)/ their radios too (2)/ loud have no (3)/ considerations for others. (4)/ No error (5).
182. The novel has neither (1)/ an interesting (2)/ plot nor any (3)/ interesting character (4)/ No error (5).
183. If you were given a (1)/ chance to live in (2)/ some other country, which (3)/ one would you have chosen? (4)/ No error (5).
184. Having lived to (1)/ Paris for two (2)/ years, Prakash understands (3)/ French reasonably well. (4)/ No error (5).
185. Reema decided not to (1)/ watch the movie because (2)/ she had to study for the (3)/ quiz to be hold the next day. (4)/No error (5).
186. Athletes do various (1)/ kinds of warm (2)/ up activities before (3)/ they start to running. (4)/ No error (5).
187. Ramesh will lives (1)/ with Ram until he (2)/ finds a separate (3)/ house for himself. (4)/ No error (5).
188. Cows, goats and (1)/ other such domestic (2)/ animals together is (3)/ called livestock. (4)/ No error (5).
189. Students are likely to (1)/ work on the evenings, (2)/ during the weekends, (3)/ or summer breaks. (4)/ No error (5).
190. Being-able to (1)/ remember a lot of informations is (2)/ not the same as (3)/ being able to think. (4)/ No error (5).
Directions (191 - 200): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested. One of which fits the blank, appropriately, Find out the appropriate word in each case.
I wanted to (191) myself a sweater. When I asked my mother for some wool, she directed me to the old cloth bag under the stairs. This was the bag (192) which my mother had over the years (193) all the remains from sweaters, scarves, cardigans and gloves that she had knitted for her self (194) the family, When I opened the bag- I screamed "What a mess!" All the wool had tangled itself into a huge knot. I said to my mother, "Its hopeless. All the wool is so badly mixed. (195) can I even detangle it, let alone knit a sweater from It "She smiled and said," Its easier (196) you think.
All you have to do is look for the easiest knot and undo that. (197) that is done, the next knot will be easier. Just keep on doing this, until an the wool is unravelled". I (198) as my mother had told me to, and sooner than I had thought, the wool started to loosen and different colours (199) to emerge. Very soon, instead of one huge untidy
bunch of wool I had several neat balls in (200) of me.
191. 1) own 2) does 3) have 4) prepared 5) knit
192. 1) from 2) on 3) to 4) for 5) in
193. 1) put 2) keep 3) managed 4) instilled 5) hide
194. 1) and 2) with 3) apart 4) aside 5) beside
195. 1) How 2) What 3) Where 4) Why 5) which
196. 1) that 2) than 3) more 4) those 5) also
197. 1) with 2) along 3) where 4) then 5) once
198. 1) try 2) follow 3) decided 4) did 5) listened
199. 1) began 2) See 3) could 4) could 5) starts
200. 1) scarch 2) reward 3) close 4) front 5) awe
Answers:
181-4; 182-5; 183-4; 184-1; 185-4; 186-4; 187-1; 188-3; 189-2; 190-2; 191-5; 192-5; 193-1; 194-1; 195-1; 196-2; 197-5; 198-4; 199-1; 200-4.
181. People who play (1)/ their radios too (2)/ loud have no (3)/ considerations for others. (4)/ No error (5).
182. The novel has neither (1)/ an interesting (2)/ plot nor any (3)/ interesting character (4)/ No error (5).
183. If you were given a (1)/ chance to live in (2)/ some other country, which (3)/ one would you have chosen? (4)/ No error (5).
184. Having lived to (1)/ Paris for two (2)/ years, Prakash understands (3)/ French reasonably well. (4)/ No error (5).
185. Reema decided not to (1)/ watch the movie because (2)/ she had to study for the (3)/ quiz to be hold the next day. (4)/No error (5).
186. Athletes do various (1)/ kinds of warm (2)/ up activities before (3)/ they start to running. (4)/ No error (5).
187. Ramesh will lives (1)/ with Ram until he (2)/ finds a separate (3)/ house for himself. (4)/ No error (5).
188. Cows, goats and (1)/ other such domestic (2)/ animals together is (3)/ called livestock. (4)/ No error (5).
189. Students are likely to (1)/ work on the evenings, (2)/ during the weekends, (3)/ or summer breaks. (4)/ No error (5).
190. Being-able to (1)/ remember a lot of informations is (2)/ not the same as (3)/ being able to think. (4)/ No error (5).
Directions (191 - 200): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested. One of which fits the blank, appropriately, Find out the appropriate word in each case.
I wanted to (191) myself a sweater. When I asked my mother for some wool, she directed me to the old cloth bag under the stairs. This was the bag (192) which my mother had over the years (193) all the remains from sweaters, scarves, cardigans and gloves that she had knitted for her self (194) the family, When I opened the bag- I screamed "What a mess!" All the wool had tangled itself into a huge knot. I said to my mother, "Its hopeless. All the wool is so badly mixed. (195) can I even detangle it, let alone knit a sweater from It "She smiled and said," Its easier (196) you think.
All you have to do is look for the easiest knot and undo that. (197) that is done, the next knot will be easier. Just keep on doing this, until an the wool is unravelled". I (198) as my mother had told me to, and sooner than I had thought, the wool started to loosen and different colours (199) to emerge. Very soon, instead of one huge untidy
bunch of wool I had several neat balls in (200) of me.
191. 1) own 2) does 3) have 4) prepared 5) knit
192. 1) from 2) on 3) to 4) for 5) in
193. 1) put 2) keep 3) managed 4) instilled 5) hide
194. 1) and 2) with 3) apart 4) aside 5) beside
195. 1) How 2) What 3) Where 4) Why 5) which
196. 1) that 2) than 3) more 4) those 5) also
197. 1) with 2) along 3) where 4) then 5) once
198. 1) try 2) follow 3) decided 4) did 5) listened
199. 1) began 2) See 3) could 4) could 5) starts
200. 1) scarch 2) reward 3) close 4) front 5) awe
Answers:
181-4; 182-5; 183-4; 184-1; 185-4; 186-4; 187-1; 188-3; 189-2; 190-2; 191-5; 192-5; 193-1; 194-1; 195-1; 196-2; 197-5; 198-4; 199-1; 200-4.
IBPS - RRBs Previous Questions Based on Memory - English Language
Directions (171 - 175): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold may either be misspelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e. 'All Correct' as your answer.,
171. The need (1)/ to grow should not be mistaken (2)/ for dissatisfaction (3)/ with one's current (4)/ state. All correct (5).
172. He lay (1)/ in the bed to rest, (2)/ and within (3)/ no time dozed (4)/ off to sleep. All correct (5).
173. It was disappointing (1)/ to know that despite (2)/ his best attempts, (3)/ he had failed (4)/ in the exam. All correct (5).
174. He was so scared (1)/ after watching (2)/ the movie (3)/ that he didn't sleep for three nights (4)/ after that. All correct (5).
175. Vijay had always (1)/ been keen (2)/ on getting (3)/ as much education (4)/ as he could. All correct (5).
Directions (176 - 180): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C) (D) and (E) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph, and then answer the questions given below:
(A) But Gandhiji stuck to his principles and did not copy, thus, having to face scolding and ridicule after the inspector left.
(B) Gandhiji wrote four words correctly, but he could not spell the fifth word 'Kettle"
(C) The Inspector of Schools visited Gandhiji's school.
(D) Having noticed that except Gandhiji all the other students had spelt all the five words, the teacher prompted Gandhiji to copy the word from his neighbour's state.
(E) He read out five English words to the class and asked all the boys to write them down.
176. Which of the following should be the LAST (FIFTH) sentence after the rearrangement?
1) B 2) A 3) E 4) D 5) C
177. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
1) D 2) B 3) C 4) E 5) A
178. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?
1) C 2) B 3) E 4) A 5) D
179. Which of the following should be the FOURTH Sentence after the rearrangement?
1) A 2) C 3) D 4) B 5) E
180. Which of the following should be the SECOND Sentence after the rearrangement?
1) E 2) B 3) D 4) C 5) A
Answers:
171-4; 172-1; 173-1; 174-5; 175-5; 176-2; 177-3; 178-2; 179-3; 180-1.
171. The need (1)/ to grow should not be mistaken (2)/ for dissatisfaction (3)/ with one's current (4)/ state. All correct (5).
172. He lay (1)/ in the bed to rest, (2)/ and within (3)/ no time dozed (4)/ off to sleep. All correct (5).
173. It was disappointing (1)/ to know that despite (2)/ his best attempts, (3)/ he had failed (4)/ in the exam. All correct (5).
174. He was so scared (1)/ after watching (2)/ the movie (3)/ that he didn't sleep for three nights (4)/ after that. All correct (5).
175. Vijay had always (1)/ been keen (2)/ on getting (3)/ as much education (4)/ as he could. All correct (5).
Directions (176 - 180): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C) (D) and (E) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph, and then answer the questions given below:
(A) But Gandhiji stuck to his principles and did not copy, thus, having to face scolding and ridicule after the inspector left.
(B) Gandhiji wrote four words correctly, but he could not spell the fifth word 'Kettle"
(C) The Inspector of Schools visited Gandhiji's school.
(D) Having noticed that except Gandhiji all the other students had spelt all the five words, the teacher prompted Gandhiji to copy the word from his neighbour's state.
(E) He read out five English words to the class and asked all the boys to write them down.
176. Which of the following should be the LAST (FIFTH) sentence after the rearrangement?
1) B 2) A 3) E 4) D 5) C
177. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
1) D 2) B 3) C 4) E 5) A
178. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?
1) C 2) B 3) E 4) A 5) D
179. Which of the following should be the FOURTH Sentence after the rearrangement?
1) A 2) C 3) D 4) B 5) E
180. Which of the following should be the SECOND Sentence after the rearrangement?
1) E 2) B 3) D 4) C 5) A
Answers:
171-4; 172-1; 173-1; 174-5; 175-5; 176-2; 177-3; 178-2; 179-3; 180-1.
IBPS - RRBs English Language Previous Questions Based on Memory
Directions (161 - 170): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ Phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Once upon a time there lived a stone cutter in a small village. He worked hard throughout the day, preparing the shapes that were ordered by his customers. His hands were rough and his clothes were dirty. One day he went to the mountain to cut a big stone. It was difficult to work as the weather was extremely hot. After working for several hours, he sat down in the shade of the nearby tree and soon fell asleep.
After sometime, he heard the sound of a procession. He woke up and saw many soldiers and attendants walking in the sun, alongside the king who not only rode an elephant but also had an umbrella to keep the sun away. "How wonderful it must be to be a king", thought the stone cutter. He wondered how happy would he be if he were the king instead of a poor stone cutter. As he thought so, a strange thing happened.
The stone cutter found himself dressed in silk clothes and shining jewels. His hands were soft and he was sitting on the elephant. He looked around at the attendants and though, "how easy it is to be a king, these people are here to serve me." The procession moved on and the sun grew hotter.
The stone cutter, now the king, became too warm for comfort. He asked the procession to stop so that he could rest for some time. At once the chief of the soldiers bent before the king and said, "Your Majesty, this morning you swore to have me hanged to death if we did not reach the palace before the sun set. "The stone cutter felt sorry for him and let the procession go on its way again. "I am powerful, it is true, but how more powerful the sun is. I would rather be the sun than a king", he thought.
At once, he became the sun, shining down on the earth. Its new power was hard to control. It shone too brilliantly and burned up the fields with its rays. But no matter how hard it shone, it could not see through the clouds. It was evident that the clouds were even stronger and more powerful than the sun. The sun wished that it would rather be a cloud. Suddenly it found itself turned into a huge dark cloud. Suddenly it found itself turned into a huge dark cloud. It started using its new power. It poured rain down on the fields and caused floods. All the trees and houses were swept away but the boulder, which once it had been cutting when it was a stone cutter was unmoved and unchanged. No matter how hard it poured down on the stone, the stone did not move.
The cloud wondered "That rock is more powerful than I am. Only a stone cutter could change the rock by his skill." No sooner had it said these words, he found himself sitting on a stone. He picked up his tools and began working.
Directions (161 - 162): Choose the word/phrase which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word/phrase printed in BOLD as used in the passage
161. KEEP THE SUN AWAY
1) Maintain darkness 2) Delay the sunet 3) Block the sun 4) Stock the shade 5) Enjoy little shade
162. EVIDENT
1) Obvious 2) Transparent 3) Known 4) Public 5) Active
Directions (163 - 165): Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in BOLD as used i the passage.
163. LET
1) Stopped 2) Punished 3) Allowed 4) Admitted 5) Disciplined
164. HARD
1) Mockingly 2) Badly 3) Leisurely 4) Soft 5) Aimlessly
165. STRANGE
1) Wonderful 2) False 3) Erratic 4) Orthodox 5) Usual
166. Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the story?
1) The Stone cutter 2) The king's Procession
3) The power of nature 4) Experiments of a King 5) A dream of a King
167. Why could the king's procession not be stopped?
1) The King had promised the queen that he would reach the palace in time.
2) It was getting dark and it was unsafe to halt.
3) It was about to rain and the palace was close by
4) The soldiers were in a hurry to reach the palace as they were very hungry
5) None of these
168. Why did the sun wish to become a cloud?
1) It wanted to cool down the earth by raining
2) It did not want to set in the evening and be visible even in the night
3) It assumed that the clouds were stronger than the sun
4) It wanted to wander in the sky like the clouds did
5) None of these
169. What problem did the cloud face?
1) The cloud could not affect the boulder
2) The cloud had to rain all the time
3) The cloud brought about a huge flood for which it was punished by the king
4) The cloud needed the sun for its formation
5) None of these
170. Why did the king desire to become the sun?
1) The sun was troubling the king and the king desired tot take revenge
2) The king desired to be more powerful than he already was
3) The chief of the soldiers suggested the king to be the sun
4) The king would be able to live in the sky, once he were the sun
5) None of these
Answers:
160-1; 161-3; 162-1; 163-1; 164-3; 165-5; 166-1; 167-5; 168-3; 169-1; 170-2.
Once upon a time there lived a stone cutter in a small village. He worked hard throughout the day, preparing the shapes that were ordered by his customers. His hands were rough and his clothes were dirty. One day he went to the mountain to cut a big stone. It was difficult to work as the weather was extremely hot. After working for several hours, he sat down in the shade of the nearby tree and soon fell asleep.
After sometime, he heard the sound of a procession. He woke up and saw many soldiers and attendants walking in the sun, alongside the king who not only rode an elephant but also had an umbrella to keep the sun away. "How wonderful it must be to be a king", thought the stone cutter. He wondered how happy would he be if he were the king instead of a poor stone cutter. As he thought so, a strange thing happened.
The stone cutter found himself dressed in silk clothes and shining jewels. His hands were soft and he was sitting on the elephant. He looked around at the attendants and though, "how easy it is to be a king, these people are here to serve me." The procession moved on and the sun grew hotter.
The stone cutter, now the king, became too warm for comfort. He asked the procession to stop so that he could rest for some time. At once the chief of the soldiers bent before the king and said, "Your Majesty, this morning you swore to have me hanged to death if we did not reach the palace before the sun set. "The stone cutter felt sorry for him and let the procession go on its way again. "I am powerful, it is true, but how more powerful the sun is. I would rather be the sun than a king", he thought.
At once, he became the sun, shining down on the earth. Its new power was hard to control. It shone too brilliantly and burned up the fields with its rays. But no matter how hard it shone, it could not see through the clouds. It was evident that the clouds were even stronger and more powerful than the sun. The sun wished that it would rather be a cloud. Suddenly it found itself turned into a huge dark cloud. Suddenly it found itself turned into a huge dark cloud. It started using its new power. It poured rain down on the fields and caused floods. All the trees and houses were swept away but the boulder, which once it had been cutting when it was a stone cutter was unmoved and unchanged. No matter how hard it poured down on the stone, the stone did not move.
The cloud wondered "That rock is more powerful than I am. Only a stone cutter could change the rock by his skill." No sooner had it said these words, he found himself sitting on a stone. He picked up his tools and began working.
Directions (161 - 162): Choose the word/phrase which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word/phrase printed in BOLD as used in the passage
161. KEEP THE SUN AWAY
1) Maintain darkness 2) Delay the sunet 3) Block the sun 4) Stock the shade 5) Enjoy little shade
162. EVIDENT
1) Obvious 2) Transparent 3) Known 4) Public 5) Active
Directions (163 - 165): Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in BOLD as used i the passage.
163. LET
1) Stopped 2) Punished 3) Allowed 4) Admitted 5) Disciplined
164. HARD
1) Mockingly 2) Badly 3) Leisurely 4) Soft 5) Aimlessly
165. STRANGE
1) Wonderful 2) False 3) Erratic 4) Orthodox 5) Usual
166. Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the story?
1) The Stone cutter 2) The king's Procession
3) The power of nature 4) Experiments of a King 5) A dream of a King
167. Why could the king's procession not be stopped?
1) The King had promised the queen that he would reach the palace in time.
2) It was getting dark and it was unsafe to halt.
3) It was about to rain and the palace was close by
4) The soldiers were in a hurry to reach the palace as they were very hungry
5) None of these
168. Why did the sun wish to become a cloud?
1) It wanted to cool down the earth by raining
2) It did not want to set in the evening and be visible even in the night
3) It assumed that the clouds were stronger than the sun
4) It wanted to wander in the sky like the clouds did
5) None of these
169. What problem did the cloud face?
1) The cloud could not affect the boulder
2) The cloud had to rain all the time
3) The cloud brought about a huge flood for which it was punished by the king
4) The cloud needed the sun for its formation
5) None of these
170. Why did the king desire to become the sun?
1) The sun was troubling the king and the king desired tot take revenge
2) The king desired to be more powerful than he already was
3) The chief of the soldiers suggested the king to be the sun
4) The king would be able to live in the sky, once he were the sun
5) None of these
Answers:
160-1; 161-3; 162-1; 163-1; 164-3; 165-5; 166-1; 167-5; 168-3; 169-1; 170-2.
IBPS - RRB Assistants - Computer Knowledge Previous Questions Based on Memory
121. Computers process data into information by working exclusively with ---
1) Multimedia 2) Words 3) Characters 4) Numbers 5) None of these
122. Which of the following memory chip is programmed during the manufacturing process?
1) RAM 2) ROM 3) PROM 4) EEPROM 5) None of these
123. A byte is a collection of --
1) Four Bits 2) Six Bits 3) Eight Bits 4) Ten Bits 5) Twelve Bits
124. CD-ROM is an example of ---
1) Input device 2) Output device 3) Both Input & Output 4) Pointing Device 5) None of these
125. Volatility is a property of ---
1) Computer networks 2) ROM 3) Disk 4) Software 5) RAM
126. Java is an example of a(n)
1) Machine language 2) Assembly language
3) High-level language 4) Fourth generation language
5) None of these
127. Which of the following is not one of the four major data processing functions of a computer?
1) Gathering data
2) Processing data into information
3) Analysing the data or information
4) Storing the data or information
5) None of these
128. The hardware device commonly referred to as the "brain" of the computer is the ---
1) RAM Chip 2) Data input 3) CPU 4) Secondary storage 5) None of these
129. When the computer is working on given instructions, it is called --
1) Output 2) Storage 3) Processing 4) Input 5) None of these
130. An input device that is used widely in supermarkets is
1) Keyboard 2) Mouse 3) Trackball 4) Bar Code reader 5) None of these
131. Producing output involves
1) Accepting information from the outside world
2) Communication with another computer
3) Moving and storing information
4) Communicating information to the outside world.
5) None of these
132. Compiler is the
1) Name given to the computer operator
2) Part of the digital machine to store the information
3) Operator of Boolean Algebra
4) Part of the arithmetic logic unit
5) Translator of source programme of object code
133. A computer programme is ---
1) A set of instructions that enable the computer to solve problem of perform a task
2) Main memory 3) Pscudocode 4) A flow chart 5) None of these
134. ---- terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex investor and sales computer systems.
1) Data 2) Point-of-sale (POS) 3) Sales 4) Query 5) None of these
135. --- is a cross between human language and a programming language
1) Pseudocode 2) Java 3) The Java Virtual Machine 4) The Compiler 5) None of these
136. Viruses, Trojan horses and Worms are --
1) Able to harm computer system
2) Unable to detect if present on computer
3) User-friendly applications
4) Harmless applications resident on computer
5) None of these
137. Computers gather data, which means that they allow users to -- data.
1) Present 2) Input 3) Output 4) Display 5) None of these
138. The components that process data are located in the --
1) Input devices 2) Output devices 3) System unit 4) Storage component 5) None of these
139. Software refers to --
1) The Physical components that a computer is made
2) Firm ware 3) Programmes 4) People Ware 5) None of these
140. The shortcut key to print documents is --
1) Ctrl +D 2) Ctrl +A 3) Ctrl +B 4) Ctrl +C 5) Ctrl +P
141. In the binary language each letter of the alphabet, each number and each special character is made up of a unique combination of --
1) Eight bytes 2) Eight Kilobytes 3) Eight characters 4) Eight bits 5) None of these
142. Graphical picture's that represent an objecting like file, folder etc, are
1) Task bar 2) Windows 3) Desktop 4) Icons 5) None of these
143. Because of their size and cost, these computers are relatively rare ---
1) Mini Computers 2) Mainframe computers
3) Micro Computers 4) Laptops 5) Super Computers
144. RAM is an acronym for --
1) Read All Memory 2) Read Any Memory
3) Ready Access Memory 4) Random Area Memory 5) Random Access Memory
145. This type of software works with end users, application software, and computer hardware to handle the majority of technical details
1) Communication software 2) Application software
3) Utility software 4) System software 5) None of these
146. Special-purpose applications include all of the following except --
1) Web authoring programme
2) Database management systems
3) Multimedia creation programmes
4) Virtual reality programmes 5) None of these
147. An object typically hides its data, but allows outside code to access ---
1) The methods that operate on the data 2) The data files
3) Private data members 4) The pseudocode 5) None of these
148. A rectangular area on a computer screen that can contain a document, programme, or messages is referred to as a (n) ---
1) Cell 2) Window 3) Tuplet 4) Field 5) None of these
149. Specialised programs designed to allow particular input or output devices to communicate with the rest of the computer system are called ---
1) Compilers 2) Device drivers 3) Interpreters 4) Operating systems 5) None of these
150. This type of computer is the least powerful, yet the most widely used and fastest-growing type of computer
1) Mainframe Computers 2) Super Computers 3) Mini Computers
4) Micro Computers 5) None of these
151. Programs designed to perform specific tasks related to managing computer resources are called --
1) System Software 2) Operating system
3) Application software 4) Utility programs 5) None of these
152. Of the following types of computers, which is the most powerful?
1) Mini Computer 2) Mainframe Computer 3) Super Computer
4) Micro Computer 5) None of these
153. The Internet service that provides a multimedia interface to available resources is called --
1) FTP 2) World Wide Web 3) Telnet 4) Gopher 5) None of these
154. Word processing software is used to create
1) Databases 2) Documents 3) Spreadsheets 4) Electronic slides 5) None of these
155. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be ---
1) Distributed 2) Cabled 3) Centralised 4) Open Source 5) None of these
156. Menus are a part of the
1) Hardware 2) User interface 3) Status Bar 4) Monitor 5) None of these
157. A program that is used to view Web sites is called a
1) Word processor 2) Web viewer 3) Spreadsheet 4) Search engine 5) Browser
158. Which of the following is not an example of a document file?
1) Spreadsheet 2) Memo 3) Letter 4) Term Paper 5) Thesis
159. Toolbars contain small out-lined areas called --- that provide shortcuts for quick access to commonly used commands.
1) Buttons 2) Dials 3) Bullets 4) Pointers 5) None of these
160. A business's customer, inventory, and payroll records would best be stored in a -- file
1) Database 2) Document 3) Worksheet 4) presentation 5) None of these
Answers:
121-4; 122-2; 123-3; 124-1; 125-5; 126-3; 127-5; 128-3; 129-3; 130-4; 131-4; 132-5; 133-1; 134-2; 135-1; 136-1; 137-2; 138-3; 139-3; 140-5; 141-4; 142-4; 143-5; 144-5; 145-3; 146-4; 147-3; 148-1; 149-4; 150-3; 151-2; 152-2; 153-2; 154-2; 155-5; 156-3; 157-5; 158-1; 159-1; 160-1.
1) Multimedia 2) Words 3) Characters 4) Numbers 5) None of these
122. Which of the following memory chip is programmed during the manufacturing process?
1) RAM 2) ROM 3) PROM 4) EEPROM 5) None of these
123. A byte is a collection of --
1) Four Bits 2) Six Bits 3) Eight Bits 4) Ten Bits 5) Twelve Bits
124. CD-ROM is an example of ---
1) Input device 2) Output device 3) Both Input & Output 4) Pointing Device 5) None of these
125. Volatility is a property of ---
1) Computer networks 2) ROM 3) Disk 4) Software 5) RAM
126. Java is an example of a(n)
1) Machine language 2) Assembly language
3) High-level language 4) Fourth generation language
5) None of these
127. Which of the following is not one of the four major data processing functions of a computer?
1) Gathering data
2) Processing data into information
3) Analysing the data or information
4) Storing the data or information
5) None of these
128. The hardware device commonly referred to as the "brain" of the computer is the ---
1) RAM Chip 2) Data input 3) CPU 4) Secondary storage 5) None of these
129. When the computer is working on given instructions, it is called --
1) Output 2) Storage 3) Processing 4) Input 5) None of these
130. An input device that is used widely in supermarkets is
1) Keyboard 2) Mouse 3) Trackball 4) Bar Code reader 5) None of these
131. Producing output involves
1) Accepting information from the outside world
2) Communication with another computer
3) Moving and storing information
4) Communicating information to the outside world.
5) None of these
132. Compiler is the
1) Name given to the computer operator
2) Part of the digital machine to store the information
3) Operator of Boolean Algebra
4) Part of the arithmetic logic unit
5) Translator of source programme of object code
133. A computer programme is ---
1) A set of instructions that enable the computer to solve problem of perform a task
2) Main memory 3) Pscudocode 4) A flow chart 5) None of these
134. ---- terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex investor and sales computer systems.
1) Data 2) Point-of-sale (POS) 3) Sales 4) Query 5) None of these
135. --- is a cross between human language and a programming language
1) Pseudocode 2) Java 3) The Java Virtual Machine 4) The Compiler 5) None of these
136. Viruses, Trojan horses and Worms are --
1) Able to harm computer system
2) Unable to detect if present on computer
3) User-friendly applications
4) Harmless applications resident on computer
5) None of these
137. Computers gather data, which means that they allow users to -- data.
1) Present 2) Input 3) Output 4) Display 5) None of these
138. The components that process data are located in the --
1) Input devices 2) Output devices 3) System unit 4) Storage component 5) None of these
139. Software refers to --
1) The Physical components that a computer is made
2) Firm ware 3) Programmes 4) People Ware 5) None of these
140. The shortcut key to print documents is --
1) Ctrl +D 2) Ctrl +A 3) Ctrl +B 4) Ctrl +C 5) Ctrl +P
141. In the binary language each letter of the alphabet, each number and each special character is made up of a unique combination of --
1) Eight bytes 2) Eight Kilobytes 3) Eight characters 4) Eight bits 5) None of these
142. Graphical picture's that represent an objecting like file, folder etc, are
1) Task bar 2) Windows 3) Desktop 4) Icons 5) None of these
143. Because of their size and cost, these computers are relatively rare ---
1) Mini Computers 2) Mainframe computers
3) Micro Computers 4) Laptops 5) Super Computers
144. RAM is an acronym for --
1) Read All Memory 2) Read Any Memory
3) Ready Access Memory 4) Random Area Memory 5) Random Access Memory
145. This type of software works with end users, application software, and computer hardware to handle the majority of technical details
1) Communication software 2) Application software
3) Utility software 4) System software 5) None of these
146. Special-purpose applications include all of the following except --
1) Web authoring programme
2) Database management systems
3) Multimedia creation programmes
4) Virtual reality programmes 5) None of these
147. An object typically hides its data, but allows outside code to access ---
1) The methods that operate on the data 2) The data files
3) Private data members 4) The pseudocode 5) None of these
148. A rectangular area on a computer screen that can contain a document, programme, or messages is referred to as a (n) ---
1) Cell 2) Window 3) Tuplet 4) Field 5) None of these
149. Specialised programs designed to allow particular input or output devices to communicate with the rest of the computer system are called ---
1) Compilers 2) Device drivers 3) Interpreters 4) Operating systems 5) None of these
150. This type of computer is the least powerful, yet the most widely used and fastest-growing type of computer
1) Mainframe Computers 2) Super Computers 3) Mini Computers
4) Micro Computers 5) None of these
151. Programs designed to perform specific tasks related to managing computer resources are called --
1) System Software 2) Operating system
3) Application software 4) Utility programs 5) None of these
152. Of the following types of computers, which is the most powerful?
1) Mini Computer 2) Mainframe Computer 3) Super Computer
4) Micro Computer 5) None of these
153. The Internet service that provides a multimedia interface to available resources is called --
1) FTP 2) World Wide Web 3) Telnet 4) Gopher 5) None of these
154. Word processing software is used to create
1) Databases 2) Documents 3) Spreadsheets 4) Electronic slides 5) None of these
155. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be ---
1) Distributed 2) Cabled 3) Centralised 4) Open Source 5) None of these
156. Menus are a part of the
1) Hardware 2) User interface 3) Status Bar 4) Monitor 5) None of these
157. A program that is used to view Web sites is called a
1) Word processor 2) Web viewer 3) Spreadsheet 4) Search engine 5) Browser
158. Which of the following is not an example of a document file?
1) Spreadsheet 2) Memo 3) Letter 4) Term Paper 5) Thesis
159. Toolbars contain small out-lined areas called --- that provide shortcuts for quick access to commonly used commands.
1) Buttons 2) Dials 3) Bullets 4) Pointers 5) None of these
160. A business's customer, inventory, and payroll records would best be stored in a -- file
1) Database 2) Document 3) Worksheet 4) presentation 5) None of these
Answers:
121-4; 122-2; 123-3; 124-1; 125-5; 126-3; 127-5; 128-3; 129-3; 130-4; 131-4; 132-5; 133-1; 134-2; 135-1; 136-1; 137-2; 138-3; 139-3; 140-5; 141-4; 142-4; 143-5; 144-5; 145-3; 146-4; 147-3; 148-1; 149-4; 150-3; 151-2; 152-2; 153-2; 154-2; 155-5; 156-3; 157-5; 158-1; 159-1; 160-1.
IBPS - RRBs Assistants Previous Questions - Based on Memory
81. Which of the following is the Currency of Bahrain?
1) Peso 2) Dinar 3) Riyal 4) Baht 5) Kwacha
82. Which of the following organisations/ bodies formulates the rule of international trade among/ between the nations?
1) World Trade Organisation
2) Asian Development Bank
3) International Monetary Fund
4) World Bank
5) United Nations Development Programme
83. Which of the following services is provided only by the Reserve Bank of India?
1) Compilation of economic data
2) Issue of currency notes
3) Purchase and sale of gold/gold coins
4) Sale of Demand Drafts
5) Safe deposit lockers for keeping valuables
84. Which of the following Committees/ Task Force was set up to suggest reforms in Banking Sector?
1) Task force on Infrastructure
2) Narasimham Committee
3) Rajinder Sachar Committee
4) Swaminathan Committee
5) None of these
85. Pranab Mukherjee won the Presidential election against
1) P.A. Sangma 2) Pratibha Patil 3) Hamid Ansari
4) A P J Abdul Kalam 5) None of these
86. 'SEBI' Tightens Consent norms - was the headline in some papers/ magazines recently. What is the full form of SEBI?
1) Secured Economy Bureau of India
2) Small Economy Based Investment
3) Securities and Exchange Board of India
4) Severe Ecological Balance and Internet
5) Society for Ecological Balance and Internet
87. Which of the following is the Capital of Australia?
1) Perth 2) Sydney 3) Hobart 4) Darwin 5) Canberra
88. Which of the following nations is NOT the member of OPEC?
1) Algeria 2) Iran 3) Libya 4) Qatar 5) France
89. Ms. Christine Lagarde is the
1) Managing Director of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)
2) President, World Bank
3) Secretary General of UNO
4) Foreign Minister of Russia
5) None of these
90. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Football?
1) Baseline 2) Chop 3) Back Pass 4) Drop Shot 5) Grand Slam
91. Which of the following is a Public Sector Undertaking?
1) AXIS Bank
2) Reliance Power
3) Hindustan Motors
4) Indian Oil Corporation Ltd.
5) Ambuja Cements
92. Ms. hillary Clinton who was on a visit to India in May 2012 is the Secretary of State of
1) Britain 2) France 3) USA 4) Germany 5) None of these
93. The 6th world Water Forum was organised in March 2012 in
1) London 2) Tokyo 3) Perth 4) Berlin 5) Marseilles
94. Which of the following countries had launched a Spy Satellite Kobalt-M in May 2012?
1) France 2) China 3) Iran 4) Russia 5) USA
95. Which of the following countries is the newest member of the FIFA?
1) South Sudan 2) Bangladesh 3) Brazil 4) Cuba 5) Chile
96. Which of the following is the name of a Patton Tank developed in India?
1) Agni 2) Arjun 3) Shakti 4) Basant 5) Pawan
97. Jim Young Kim has taken over as the new President of
1) World Bank 2) IMF 3) ADB 4) UNESCO 5) Bank of America
98. How many members are nominated by the President of India to the Rajya Sabha?
1) 5 2) 6 3) 8 4) 12 5) None of these
99. Which of the following is a food grain grown in India?
1) Rose 2) Mustard 3) Sunflower 4) Banana 5) Paddy
100. Dr. D.Subbarao is a well known name in the field of.....
1) Science & Technology 2) Politics 3) Sports 4) Banking 5) Literature
101. Viswanathan Anand is a world famous
1) Cricket player 2) Chess player 3) Hockey Player
4) Golf Player 5) Lawn Tennis Player
102. Which of the following decided by the RBI?
1) Interest rate on time deposits
2) Rent of safe deposit vaults
3) Inflation Rate
4) Dearness allowance to Government Employees
5) Cash Reserve Ratio
103. Members of the Lok Sabha are elected for a period of
1) 4 years 2) 5 years 3) 6 years 4) 3 years 5) 6 1/2 years
104. Which of the following Acts ensures that every child gets school education?
1) RTI Act 2) RTE Act 3) Apprentice Act
4) Government Grants Act 5) None of these
105. Which of the following books is written by Anita Desai?
1) Where Shall we Go this Summer
2) A General and His Army
3) An Eye to China
4) Between Hope and History
5) Coolie
106. Which of the following Awards is given Cine Persons for their lifetime achievement?
1) Saraswati Samman
2) Kalidas Samman
3) Arjuna Award
4) Dada Saheb Phalke Award
5) Kirti Chakra
107. Commonwealth Games - 2014 will be organised in
1) London 2) New Delhi 3) Glasgow 4) Toronto 5) Wellington
108. Who among the following is a Cabinet Minister in Union Cabinet of India?
1) Sachin Pilot 2) Milind Deora 3) A.K. Antony
4) Rahul Gandhi 5) None of these
109. Which of the following statements in True about Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana lunched by the Government of India?
1) This scheme is only for children upto 14 years of age
2) Scheme was launched in 1983 but was with drawn in 2000
3) In 12th Five Year Plan about 7 crore families will be provided insurance cover under the scheme
4) All those who are above 60 will get an insurance cover of Rs. 10 lakh
5) None of these
110. What does the letter 'C' denote in the term 'CBS' as used in banking operations?
1) Central 2) Critical 3) Commercial 4) Core 5) Capital
111. Who among the following is the Foreign Secretary of India at Present?
1) Ajit Seth 2) S.K. Tripathi 3) Pulok Chatterjee
4) Mukul Joshi 5) None of these
112. Who among the following was a famous author of Sanskrit language?
1) Kalidas 2) Mirabai 3) Tulasidas 4) Jaidev 5) Raskhan
113. Deepika Kumari's name is associated with --
1) Swimming 2) Archery 3) Billiards 4) Golf 5) Cricket
114. Which of the following countries has imposed new sanctions of Iran and Syria?
1) India 2) Sri Lanka 3) Russia 4) USA 5) South Africa
115. Which of the following places in India does not have a nuclear power plant?
1) Narora 2) Rawatbhata 3) Silchar 4) Tarapore 5) Kalpakkam
116. Who among the following is from Trinamool Congress Party?
1) Srikant Jena 2) Navin Jindal 3) Gurudas Dasgupta
4) Dinesh Trivedi 5) Sanjay Nirupam
117. Which of the following terms is NOT associated with banking/finance?
1) RTGS 2) SLR 3) Repo Rate 4) Credit 5) LBW
118. Oscar Awards are given in the field of --
1) Economics 2) Social Service 3) Literature 4) Films 5) Sports
119. Which of the following Cups/Trophies is associated with the game of Cricket?
1) Ranji Trophy 2) Davis Cup 3) Thomas Cup 4) Nehru Trophy 5) Agha Khan Cup
120. Which of the following is a Union Territory of India?
1) Uttarakhand 2) Chandigarh 3) Himachal Pradesh
4) Kerala 5) West Bengal
Answers:
81-2; 82-1; 83-2; 84-2; 85-1; 86-3 87-5; 88-5; 89-1; 90-3; 91-4; 92-3; 93-5; 94-4; 95-1; 96-2; 97-1; 98-5; 99-5; 100-4; 101-2; 102-5; 103-2; 104-2; 105-1; 106-4; 107-3; 108-3; 109-3; 110-4; 111-5; 112-1; 113-2; 114-4; 115-3; 116-4; 117-5; 118-4; 119-1; 120-2.
1) Peso 2) Dinar 3) Riyal 4) Baht 5) Kwacha
82. Which of the following organisations/ bodies formulates the rule of international trade among/ between the nations?
1) World Trade Organisation
2) Asian Development Bank
3) International Monetary Fund
4) World Bank
5) United Nations Development Programme
83. Which of the following services is provided only by the Reserve Bank of India?
1) Compilation of economic data
2) Issue of currency notes
3) Purchase and sale of gold/gold coins
4) Sale of Demand Drafts
5) Safe deposit lockers for keeping valuables
84. Which of the following Committees/ Task Force was set up to suggest reforms in Banking Sector?
1) Task force on Infrastructure
2) Narasimham Committee
3) Rajinder Sachar Committee
4) Swaminathan Committee
5) None of these
85. Pranab Mukherjee won the Presidential election against
1) P.A. Sangma 2) Pratibha Patil 3) Hamid Ansari
4) A P J Abdul Kalam 5) None of these
86. 'SEBI' Tightens Consent norms - was the headline in some papers/ magazines recently. What is the full form of SEBI?
1) Secured Economy Bureau of India
2) Small Economy Based Investment
3) Securities and Exchange Board of India
4) Severe Ecological Balance and Internet
5) Society for Ecological Balance and Internet
87. Which of the following is the Capital of Australia?
1) Perth 2) Sydney 3) Hobart 4) Darwin 5) Canberra
88. Which of the following nations is NOT the member of OPEC?
1) Algeria 2) Iran 3) Libya 4) Qatar 5) France
89. Ms. Christine Lagarde is the
1) Managing Director of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)
2) President, World Bank
3) Secretary General of UNO
4) Foreign Minister of Russia
5) None of these
90. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Football?
1) Baseline 2) Chop 3) Back Pass 4) Drop Shot 5) Grand Slam
91. Which of the following is a Public Sector Undertaking?
1) AXIS Bank
2) Reliance Power
3) Hindustan Motors
4) Indian Oil Corporation Ltd.
5) Ambuja Cements
92. Ms. hillary Clinton who was on a visit to India in May 2012 is the Secretary of State of
1) Britain 2) France 3) USA 4) Germany 5) None of these
93. The 6th world Water Forum was organised in March 2012 in
1) London 2) Tokyo 3) Perth 4) Berlin 5) Marseilles
94. Which of the following countries had launched a Spy Satellite Kobalt-M in May 2012?
1) France 2) China 3) Iran 4) Russia 5) USA
95. Which of the following countries is the newest member of the FIFA?
1) South Sudan 2) Bangladesh 3) Brazil 4) Cuba 5) Chile
96. Which of the following is the name of a Patton Tank developed in India?
1) Agni 2) Arjun 3) Shakti 4) Basant 5) Pawan
97. Jim Young Kim has taken over as the new President of
1) World Bank 2) IMF 3) ADB 4) UNESCO 5) Bank of America
98. How many members are nominated by the President of India to the Rajya Sabha?
1) 5 2) 6 3) 8 4) 12 5) None of these
99. Which of the following is a food grain grown in India?
1) Rose 2) Mustard 3) Sunflower 4) Banana 5) Paddy
100. Dr. D.Subbarao is a well known name in the field of.....
1) Science & Technology 2) Politics 3) Sports 4) Banking 5) Literature
101. Viswanathan Anand is a world famous
1) Cricket player 2) Chess player 3) Hockey Player
4) Golf Player 5) Lawn Tennis Player
102. Which of the following decided by the RBI?
1) Interest rate on time deposits
2) Rent of safe deposit vaults
3) Inflation Rate
4) Dearness allowance to Government Employees
5) Cash Reserve Ratio
103. Members of the Lok Sabha are elected for a period of
1) 4 years 2) 5 years 3) 6 years 4) 3 years 5) 6 1/2 years
104. Which of the following Acts ensures that every child gets school education?
1) RTI Act 2) RTE Act 3) Apprentice Act
4) Government Grants Act 5) None of these
105. Which of the following books is written by Anita Desai?
1) Where Shall we Go this Summer
2) A General and His Army
3) An Eye to China
4) Between Hope and History
5) Coolie
106. Which of the following Awards is given Cine Persons for their lifetime achievement?
1) Saraswati Samman
2) Kalidas Samman
3) Arjuna Award
4) Dada Saheb Phalke Award
5) Kirti Chakra
107. Commonwealth Games - 2014 will be organised in
1) London 2) New Delhi 3) Glasgow 4) Toronto 5) Wellington
108. Who among the following is a Cabinet Minister in Union Cabinet of India?
1) Sachin Pilot 2) Milind Deora 3) A.K. Antony
4) Rahul Gandhi 5) None of these
109. Which of the following statements in True about Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana lunched by the Government of India?
1) This scheme is only for children upto 14 years of age
2) Scheme was launched in 1983 but was with drawn in 2000
3) In 12th Five Year Plan about 7 crore families will be provided insurance cover under the scheme
4) All those who are above 60 will get an insurance cover of Rs. 10 lakh
5) None of these
110. What does the letter 'C' denote in the term 'CBS' as used in banking operations?
1) Central 2) Critical 3) Commercial 4) Core 5) Capital
111. Who among the following is the Foreign Secretary of India at Present?
1) Ajit Seth 2) S.K. Tripathi 3) Pulok Chatterjee
4) Mukul Joshi 5) None of these
112. Who among the following was a famous author of Sanskrit language?
1) Kalidas 2) Mirabai 3) Tulasidas 4) Jaidev 5) Raskhan
113. Deepika Kumari's name is associated with --
1) Swimming 2) Archery 3) Billiards 4) Golf 5) Cricket
114. Which of the following countries has imposed new sanctions of Iran and Syria?
1) India 2) Sri Lanka 3) Russia 4) USA 5) South Africa
115. Which of the following places in India does not have a nuclear power plant?
1) Narora 2) Rawatbhata 3) Silchar 4) Tarapore 5) Kalpakkam
116. Who among the following is from Trinamool Congress Party?
1) Srikant Jena 2) Navin Jindal 3) Gurudas Dasgupta
4) Dinesh Trivedi 5) Sanjay Nirupam
117. Which of the following terms is NOT associated with banking/finance?
1) RTGS 2) SLR 3) Repo Rate 4) Credit 5) LBW
118. Oscar Awards are given in the field of --
1) Economics 2) Social Service 3) Literature 4) Films 5) Sports
119. Which of the following Cups/Trophies is associated with the game of Cricket?
1) Ranji Trophy 2) Davis Cup 3) Thomas Cup 4) Nehru Trophy 5) Agha Khan Cup
120. Which of the following is a Union Territory of India?
1) Uttarakhand 2) Chandigarh 3) Himachal Pradesh
4) Kerala 5) West Bengal
Answers:
81-2; 82-1; 83-2; 84-2; 85-1; 86-3 87-5; 88-5; 89-1; 90-3; 91-4; 92-3; 93-5; 94-4; 95-1; 96-2; 97-1; 98-5; 99-5; 100-4; 101-2; 102-5; 103-2; 104-2; 105-1; 106-4; 107-3; 108-3; 109-3; 110-4; 111-5; 112-1; 113-2; 114-4; 115-3; 116-4; 117-5; 118-4; 119-1; 120-2.
IBPS - RRBs Numerical Ability Previous Questions - Based on Memory
Directions (1 - 5): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?
1. 5 6 16 57 ? 1245
1) 244 2) 148 3) 296 4) 271 5) None of these
2. 12 ? 168 504 1260 2520
1) 96 2) 59 3) 61 4) 48 5) None of these
3. 4 9 29 ? 599 3599
1) 117 2) 347 3) 258 4) 174 5) None of these
4. 177 170 159 146 ? 1110
1) 132 2) 106 3) 129 4) 127 5) None of these
5. 2 3 11 38 102 ?
1) 402 2) 182 3) 227 4) 168 5) None of these
6. On a particular day, sweets were to be equally distributed among 495 students of a school. However, on that particular day 396 students from a near by school also joined them. Hence each student present on that day got four sweets less. How many sweets were distributed?
1) 5445 2) 4950 3) 4455 4) 3960 5) None of these
7. A student requires 324 pencils in 6 years. How many dozen pencils will he require in 14 years?
1) 52 2) 64 3) 59 4) 62 5) None of these
8. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'REPLACE' be arranged?
1) 2630 2) 5040 3) 1680 4) 2580 5) None of these
9. A particular sum was divided among A, B and C in the ratio 2 : 6 : 7 respectively. If the amount received by A was Rs. 4,908, what was the difference between the amounts received by B and C?
1) Rs. 2,454 2) Rs. 3,494 3) Rs. 2,135 4) Rs. 2,481 5) None of these
10. The average of four consecutive even numbers P, Q, R and S respectively (in increasing order) is 51. What is the product of P and R?
1) 2592 2) 2400 3) 2600 4) 2808 5) None of these
11. What is the least number to be added to 4523 to make it a perfect square?
1) 101 2) 34 3) 238 4) 121 5) None of these
12. The product of two consecutive even numbers is 7568. What is 150% of the sum of the two numbers?
1) 204 2) 261 3) 304 4) 198 5) None of these
13. Length of the floor of a rectangular auditorium is 6 metre more than the radius of a circle with a circumference of 572 m. The perimeter of the floor of the rectangular auditorium is 356 m. What will be cost of flooring the auditorium (only the floor of the auditorium), if the cost of flooring is Rs.12/m2?
1) Rs.87,954 2) Rs.91,236 3) Rs.94,284 4) Rs.75,490 5) None of these
14. A car covers a distance of 528 km. in a certain time at a speed of 66 km./hr. How much distance would a truck cover at an average speed which is 24 km./hr. less than that of the speed of the car in time which is 7 hours more than that taken by the car?
1) 336 km 2) 682 km 3) 598 km 4) 630 km 5) None of these
15. The average age of a man and his son is 30 years. The ratio of their ages four years ago was 10 : 3 respectively. What is the difference between the present ages of the man and his son?
1) 28 years 2) 16 years 3) 26 years 4) 44 years 5) None of these
16. What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 7,790 at the rate of 10 p.c.p.a after two years?
1) Rs. 1532.60 2) Rs. 1495.90 3) Rs. 1653.50 4) Rs. 1635.90 5) None of these
17. The Average height of 27 persons was recorded as 162 cm. If the height of Shreyas was deleted from the observation, the average height reduced by 1 cm. What was Shreyas' height?
1) 184 cm. 2) 226 cm 3) 179 cm.
4) 186 cm 5) None of these
18. The cost of 14 keyboards and 8 mouse-pads is Rs. 26,240. What is the cost of 35 keyboards and 20 mouse-pads?
1) Rs. 65,600 2) Rs. 58,800 3) Rs. 76,550
4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
19. In order to pass in an examination, a student is required to get 342 marks out of the aggregate marks. Neha got 266 marks and was declared fail by 8 percent. What is the minimum passing percentage of the examination?
1) 28 2) 36 3) 33 4) 26 5) None of these
Answers:
1-1; 2-4; 3-5; 4-3; 5-3; 6-3; 7-5; 8-5; 9-1; 10-5; 11-1; 12-2; 13-3; 14-4; 15-1; 16-4; 17-5; 18-1; 19-2.
1. 5 6 16 57 ? 1245
1) 244 2) 148 3) 296 4) 271 5) None of these
2. 12 ? 168 504 1260 2520
1) 96 2) 59 3) 61 4) 48 5) None of these
3. 4 9 29 ? 599 3599
1) 117 2) 347 3) 258 4) 174 5) None of these
4. 177 170 159 146 ? 1110
1) 132 2) 106 3) 129 4) 127 5) None of these
5. 2 3 11 38 102 ?
1) 402 2) 182 3) 227 4) 168 5) None of these
6. On a particular day, sweets were to be equally distributed among 495 students of a school. However, on that particular day 396 students from a near by school also joined them. Hence each student present on that day got four sweets less. How many sweets were distributed?
1) 5445 2) 4950 3) 4455 4) 3960 5) None of these
7. A student requires 324 pencils in 6 years. How many dozen pencils will he require in 14 years?
1) 52 2) 64 3) 59 4) 62 5) None of these
8. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'REPLACE' be arranged?
1) 2630 2) 5040 3) 1680 4) 2580 5) None of these
9. A particular sum was divided among A, B and C in the ratio 2 : 6 : 7 respectively. If the amount received by A was Rs. 4,908, what was the difference between the amounts received by B and C?
1) Rs. 2,454 2) Rs. 3,494 3) Rs. 2,135 4) Rs. 2,481 5) None of these
10. The average of four consecutive even numbers P, Q, R and S respectively (in increasing order) is 51. What is the product of P and R?
1) 2592 2) 2400 3) 2600 4) 2808 5) None of these
11. What is the least number to be added to 4523 to make it a perfect square?
1) 101 2) 34 3) 238 4) 121 5) None of these
12. The product of two consecutive even numbers is 7568. What is 150% of the sum of the two numbers?
1) 204 2) 261 3) 304 4) 198 5) None of these
13. Length of the floor of a rectangular auditorium is 6 metre more than the radius of a circle with a circumference of 572 m. The perimeter of the floor of the rectangular auditorium is 356 m. What will be cost of flooring the auditorium (only the floor of the auditorium), if the cost of flooring is Rs.12/m2?
1) Rs.87,954 2) Rs.91,236 3) Rs.94,284 4) Rs.75,490 5) None of these
14. A car covers a distance of 528 km. in a certain time at a speed of 66 km./hr. How much distance would a truck cover at an average speed which is 24 km./hr. less than that of the speed of the car in time which is 7 hours more than that taken by the car?
1) 336 km 2) 682 km 3) 598 km 4) 630 km 5) None of these
15. The average age of a man and his son is 30 years. The ratio of their ages four years ago was 10 : 3 respectively. What is the difference between the present ages of the man and his son?
1) 28 years 2) 16 years 3) 26 years 4) 44 years 5) None of these
16. What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 7,790 at the rate of 10 p.c.p.a after two years?
1) Rs. 1532.60 2) Rs. 1495.90 3) Rs. 1653.50 4) Rs. 1635.90 5) None of these
17. The Average height of 27 persons was recorded as 162 cm. If the height of Shreyas was deleted from the observation, the average height reduced by 1 cm. What was Shreyas' height?
1) 184 cm. 2) 226 cm 3) 179 cm.
4) 186 cm 5) None of these
18. The cost of 14 keyboards and 8 mouse-pads is Rs. 26,240. What is the cost of 35 keyboards and 20 mouse-pads?
1) Rs. 65,600 2) Rs. 58,800 3) Rs. 76,550
4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
19. In order to pass in an examination, a student is required to get 342 marks out of the aggregate marks. Neha got 266 marks and was declared fail by 8 percent. What is the minimum passing percentage of the examination?
1) 28 2) 36 3) 33 4) 26 5) None of these
Answers:
1-1; 2-4; 3-5; 4-3; 5-3; 6-3; 7-5; 8-5; 9-1; 10-5; 11-1; 12-2; 13-3; 14-4; 15-1; 16-4; 17-5; 18-1; 19-2.
IBPS - RRBs Reasoning Prevous Questions for Assistants Exam - Based on Memory
Directions (1 - 2): Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions:
Sunil started walking from point A. He walked 6 metres towards East to reach point B. From Point B he took a right turn and walked 3 metres to reach point C. From point C he took a right turn and walked 10 metres to reach point D. From point D he took a left turn and walked 4 metres to reach point E. From point e, he walked 4 metres East to reach point F. Point G is exactly mid-way between point C and Point D.
1. If Sunil walks 4 metres to the North of point F, how far and in which direction will he be from point G?
1) 1 metre towards East 2) 2 metres towards East
3) 1 metre towards West 4) 2 metres towards West
5) 1.5 metres towards East
2. How far and in which direction is point F from point A?
1) 7 metres towards North 2) 6 metres towards South
3) 8 metres towards South 4) 6 metres towards North
5) None of these
3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
1) Think 2) Reflect 3) Speak 4) Consider 5) Ponder
4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BARGAINED, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
1) Two 2) Three 3) None 4) One 5) More than three
Directions (5 - 7): Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
In a group of six people P, Q, R, S, T and U, each having a different weight, S is heavier than Q. R is lighter than only T and P. Q is not the lightest. P is not the heaviest.
5. Who amongst the following is the lightest?
1) T 2) P 3) R 4) U 5) None of these
6. Who among the following is the second heaviest?
1) R 2) S 3) U 4) T 5) P
7. How many people are lighter than S?
1) None 2) Three 3) Two 4) More than three 5) One
8. which of the following will come next in the following series?
9 1 9 8 2 9 8 7 3 9 8 7 6 4 9 8 7 6 5 5 9 8 7 6 5 4 6 9 8 7 6 5 4
1) 7 2) 8 3) 3 4) 2 5) 4
9. Which of the following will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?
ZA BY XC DW?
1) VF 2) EU 3) UE 4) EV 5) VE
10. Fifteen girls are standing in a straight fine facing North, Sudha is standing eleventh from the right end. Radha is standing ninth from the left end. Meena is standing exactly between Sudha and Radha. How many girls are standing to the right of Meena?
1) Eight 2) Seven 3) Nine 4) Six 5) Cannot be determined
Directions (11 - 15): Study the given information refully and answer the given questions:
Eight people P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre not necessarily in the same order. T is sitting third to the right of P. W is sitting second to the right of S. S is not an immediate neighbour of either P or T. U and Q are immediate neighbours of each other. Q is not an immediate neighbour of P. V is not an immediate neighbour of W.
11. What is R's position with respect to V?
1) Second to the left 2) Second to the right
3) Third to the right 4) Third to the left
5) None of these
12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
1) RQ 2) PV 3) TP 4) US 5) WT
13. Who is sitting second to the right of the one who is sitting to the immediate right of W?
1) U 2) R 3) V 4) P 5) Q
14. How many people are sitting between U and Wwhen counted from the left side of U?
1) Three 2) None 3) More than three 4) Two 5) One
15. Who is sitting exactly between T and S?
1) U 2) Q 3) W 4) V 5) R
Directions (16 - 20): In each of the questions below, two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II follow
16. Statements: All stones are pebbles
All pebbles are rocks
Conclusions: I. All stones are rocks
II. All rocks are pebbles
17. Statements: All kings are rulers
Some rulers are queens
Conclusions: I. Some kings are queens
II. Atleast some queens are rulers
18. Statements: Some gardens are parks
Some parks are areas
Conclusions: I. Atleast some areas are parks
II. No garden in an area
19. Statements: No letter is a fax
All messages are faxes
Conclusions: I. No message is a letter
II. Atleast some faxes are messages
20. Statements: Some boards are plains
No plain is a square
Conclusions: I. All squares are boards
II. All plains are boards
Directions (21 - 25): Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions:
Eight people - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a straight line facing North not necessarily in the same order. F is sitting fifth to the right of A. D is sitting fifth to the right of E. E is to the immediate right of A. He is third to the left of D. B is third to the right of G. G is an immediate neighbour of A.
21. What is E's position with respect to C ?
1) Second to the left 2) Third to the right
3) Fourth to the right 4) Third to the left
5) None of these
22. Who is sitting third to the right of the one who is sitting sixth from the right end of the above arrangement?
1) D 2) C 3) E 4) H 5) None of these
23. Who amongst the following are sitting at the extreme ends of the line?
1) G and D 2) A and D 3) G and F
4) E and D 5) A and B
24. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
1) HD 2) BE 3) EC 4) AH 5) GB
25. If all eight persons are asked to sit in an alphabetical order from right to left, the positions of how many will remain unchanged as compared to their original seating position?
1) Three 2) More than three 3) One 4) Two 5) None
Directions (26-30): In these questions, relationships between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Given answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
26. Statements:G ≤ F = L ≤ J ; J ≤ K = H
Conclusions: I. H = G II. G < H 27. Statements: P < R < S < T > U
Conclusions: I. U < R II. T > P
28. Statements: T ≥ U ≥ V > W ; X < Y = W > Z
Conclusions: I. Z > U II. W < T 29. Statements: K < L < M < N; M < O < P Conclusions: I. P > K II. N > O
30. Statements: B < A < C ; A > D ≤ E
Conclusions: I. B ≤ E II. C > E
Answers:
1-3; 2-1; 3-3; 4-5; 5-4; 6-5; 7-3; 8-3; 9-5; 10-1; 11-2; 12-3; 14-5; 15-4; 16-1; 17-2; 18-1; 19-5; 20-4; 21-4; 22-2; 23-1; 24-2; 25-3; 26-3; 27-2; 28-2; 29-1; 30-4.
Sunil started walking from point A. He walked 6 metres towards East to reach point B. From Point B he took a right turn and walked 3 metres to reach point C. From point C he took a right turn and walked 10 metres to reach point D. From point D he took a left turn and walked 4 metres to reach point E. From point e, he walked 4 metres East to reach point F. Point G is exactly mid-way between point C and Point D.
1. If Sunil walks 4 metres to the North of point F, how far and in which direction will he be from point G?
1) 1 metre towards East 2) 2 metres towards East
3) 1 metre towards West 4) 2 metres towards West
5) 1.5 metres towards East
2. How far and in which direction is point F from point A?
1) 7 metres towards North 2) 6 metres towards South
3) 8 metres towards South 4) 6 metres towards North
5) None of these
3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
1) Think 2) Reflect 3) Speak 4) Consider 5) Ponder
4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BARGAINED, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
1) Two 2) Three 3) None 4) One 5) More than three
Directions (5 - 7): Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
In a group of six people P, Q, R, S, T and U, each having a different weight, S is heavier than Q. R is lighter than only T and P. Q is not the lightest. P is not the heaviest.
5. Who amongst the following is the lightest?
1) T 2) P 3) R 4) U 5) None of these
6. Who among the following is the second heaviest?
1) R 2) S 3) U 4) T 5) P
7. How many people are lighter than S?
1) None 2) Three 3) Two 4) More than three 5) One
8. which of the following will come next in the following series?
9 1 9 8 2 9 8 7 3 9 8 7 6 4 9 8 7 6 5 5 9 8 7 6 5 4 6 9 8 7 6 5 4
1) 7 2) 8 3) 3 4) 2 5) 4
9. Which of the following will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?
ZA BY XC DW?
1) VF 2) EU 3) UE 4) EV 5) VE
10. Fifteen girls are standing in a straight fine facing North, Sudha is standing eleventh from the right end. Radha is standing ninth from the left end. Meena is standing exactly between Sudha and Radha. How many girls are standing to the right of Meena?
1) Eight 2) Seven 3) Nine 4) Six 5) Cannot be determined
Directions (11 - 15): Study the given information refully and answer the given questions:
Eight people P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre not necessarily in the same order. T is sitting third to the right of P. W is sitting second to the right of S. S is not an immediate neighbour of either P or T. U and Q are immediate neighbours of each other. Q is not an immediate neighbour of P. V is not an immediate neighbour of W.
11. What is R's position with respect to V?
1) Second to the left 2) Second to the right
3) Third to the right 4) Third to the left
5) None of these
12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
1) RQ 2) PV 3) TP 4) US 5) WT
13. Who is sitting second to the right of the one who is sitting to the immediate right of W?
1) U 2) R 3) V 4) P 5) Q
14. How many people are sitting between U and Wwhen counted from the left side of U?
1) Three 2) None 3) More than three 4) Two 5) One
15. Who is sitting exactly between T and S?
1) U 2) Q 3) W 4) V 5) R
Directions (16 - 20): In each of the questions below, two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II follow
16. Statements: All stones are pebbles
All pebbles are rocks
Conclusions: I. All stones are rocks
II. All rocks are pebbles
17. Statements: All kings are rulers
Some rulers are queens
Conclusions: I. Some kings are queens
II. Atleast some queens are rulers
18. Statements: Some gardens are parks
Some parks are areas
Conclusions: I. Atleast some areas are parks
II. No garden in an area
19. Statements: No letter is a fax
All messages are faxes
Conclusions: I. No message is a letter
II. Atleast some faxes are messages
20. Statements: Some boards are plains
No plain is a square
Conclusions: I. All squares are boards
II. All plains are boards
Directions (21 - 25): Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions:
Eight people - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a straight line facing North not necessarily in the same order. F is sitting fifth to the right of A. D is sitting fifth to the right of E. E is to the immediate right of A. He is third to the left of D. B is third to the right of G. G is an immediate neighbour of A.
21. What is E's position with respect to C ?
1) Second to the left 2) Third to the right
3) Fourth to the right 4) Third to the left
5) None of these
22. Who is sitting third to the right of the one who is sitting sixth from the right end of the above arrangement?
1) D 2) C 3) E 4) H 5) None of these
23. Who amongst the following are sitting at the extreme ends of the line?
1) G and D 2) A and D 3) G and F
4) E and D 5) A and B
24. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
1) HD 2) BE 3) EC 4) AH 5) GB
25. If all eight persons are asked to sit in an alphabetical order from right to left, the positions of how many will remain unchanged as compared to their original seating position?
1) Three 2) More than three 3) One 4) Two 5) None
Directions (26-30): In these questions, relationships between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Given answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
26. Statements:G ≤ F = L ≤ J ; J ≤ K = H
Conclusions: I. H = G II. G < H 27. Statements: P < R < S < T > U
Conclusions: I. U < R II. T > P
28. Statements: T ≥ U ≥ V > W ; X < Y = W > Z
Conclusions: I. Z > U II. W < T 29. Statements: K < L < M < N; M < O < P Conclusions: I. P > K II. N > O
30. Statements: B < A < C ; A > D ≤ E
Conclusions: I. B ≤ E II. C > E
Answers:
1-3; 2-1; 3-3; 4-5; 5-4; 6-5; 7-3; 8-3; 9-5; 10-1; 11-2; 12-3; 14-5; 15-4; 16-1; 17-2; 18-1; 19-5; 20-4; 21-4; 22-2; 23-1; 24-2; 25-3; 26-3; 27-2; 28-2; 29-1; 30-4.
18 June 2024
IBPS - RRB Educatonal Qualifications and Experience details 2014
IBPS has announced CWE (Common Written Examination) III for the recruitment of Officers and Office Assistants in Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) across the country. There are specialist officers and office assistant (multipurpose) posts for which educational qualifications are different. Following are details of educational qualifications for various posts of IBPS - RRBs recruitment:
1) Office Assistant (Multipurpose): Degree in any discipline along with proficiency in local language and knowledge of computers.
2) Officer Scale 1: Degree is the minimum qualification. Candidates with agriculture, horticulture, forestry, animal husbandry, veterinary science, agricultural engineering, agricultural marketing and cooperation, management, law, economics, accountancy will be preferred. They also require proficiency in local language and computers.
3) Officer Scale 2 (General Banking Officers): Degree with minimum 50 percent marks and two years experience. Candidates with above mentioned specializations will be preferred.
4) Officer Scale 2 (Specialists Officers):
a) IT Officer: Degree in Electronics / Communication / Computer Science / IT with at least 50 percent marks and one year experience.
b) Chartered Accountant: CA and one year experience.
c) Law Officers: Degree in law with 50 percent marks.
d) Treasury Manager: CA or MBA in Finance with one year experience.
e) Marketing Officer: MBA in marketing with one year experience.
f) Agricultural Officer: Degree in Agriculture / Hosticulture / Animal Husbandry and allied subjects with two years experience.
Officer (Scale 3): Degree in any discipline with 50 percent marks and 5 years experience. Candidates with degree in agriculture and allied sciences will be preferred.
Complete details of qualifications and experience will be available on the IBPS website at www.ibps.in .
1) Office Assistant (Multipurpose): Degree in any discipline along with proficiency in local language and knowledge of computers.
2) Officer Scale 1: Degree is the minimum qualification. Candidates with agriculture, horticulture, forestry, animal husbandry, veterinary science, agricultural engineering, agricultural marketing and cooperation, management, law, economics, accountancy will be preferred. They also require proficiency in local language and computers.
3) Officer Scale 2 (General Banking Officers): Degree with minimum 50 percent marks and two years experience. Candidates with above mentioned specializations will be preferred.
4) Officer Scale 2 (Specialists Officers):
a) IT Officer: Degree in Electronics / Communication / Computer Science / IT with at least 50 percent marks and one year experience.
b) Chartered Accountant: CA and one year experience.
c) Law Officers: Degree in law with 50 percent marks.
d) Treasury Manager: CA or MBA in Finance with one year experience.
e) Marketing Officer: MBA in marketing with one year experience.
f) Agricultural Officer: Degree in Agriculture / Hosticulture / Animal Husbandry and allied subjects with two years experience.
Officer (Scale 3): Degree in any discipline with 50 percent marks and 5 years experience. Candidates with degree in agriculture and allied sciences will be preferred.
Complete details of qualifications and experience will be available on the IBPS website at www.ibps.in .
IBPS - RRB Common Written Exam in September 2014
Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has issued notification for Common Written Examination - III for the recruitment of officers and office assistants (multipurpose) in Regional Rural Banks (RRBs). The vacancies in 56 RRBs across the country will be filled through this notification.
Exam: IBPS - RRBs Common Written Examination
Scale 1 Officer: Applicants should have Degree in discipline along with computer knowledge. Age should be between 19-28 years.
Scale 2 Officer: Candidates should have Degree in any subject along with two years experience in any bank / financial institution. Age must be between 21 - 32 years.
Group B Office Assistant (Multipurpose): Candidates should have degree in any discipline. Selection will be through online written examination.
Interested candidates can apply online from 18th June to 9th July 2014. Examination will be conducted in September 2014. For more details, see www.ibps.in .
Exam: IBPS - RRBs Common Written Examination
Scale 1 Officer: Applicants should have Degree in discipline along with computer knowledge. Age should be between 19-28 years.
Scale 2 Officer: Candidates should have Degree in any subject along with two years experience in any bank / financial institution. Age must be between 21 - 32 years.
Group B Office Assistant (Multipurpose): Candidates should have degree in any discipline. Selection will be through online written examination.
Interested candidates can apply online from 18th June to 9th July 2014. Examination will be conducted in September 2014. For more details, see www.ibps.in .
06 November 2024
IBPS - RRBs CWE 2 Results Announced for Written Exam
Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS), Mumbai has announced results of the written examination conducted for the posts of Officers and Office Assistants in various Regional Rural Banks (RRBs). The results can be accessed in the following procedure:
1) Log on to the website at http://ibpsresults.sifyitest.com/cwerrboct13/login.php?appid=nlkahfsflkasdad .
2) Enter the following details: Registration Number OR Roll Number, Password OR Date of birth in Date, Month and Year format.
3) Press 'Submit' Button to get the results.
Concerned banks will shortlist the qualified candidates for the posts of Officers and Office Assistants based on IBPS scores. They may conduct Group discussions / personal interviews as per their recruitment procedures.
1) Log on to the website at http://ibpsresults.sifyitest.com/cwerrboct13/login.php?appid=nlkahfsflkasdad .
2) Enter the following details: Registration Number OR Roll Number, Password OR Date of birth in Date, Month and Year format.
3) Press 'Submit' Button to get the results.
Concerned banks will shortlist the qualified candidates for the posts of Officers and Office Assistants based on IBPS scores. They may conduct Group discussions / personal interviews as per their recruitment procedures.
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