Showing posts with label Model Papers. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Model Papers. Show all posts

11 July 2024

JKC Mentors Recruitment Model Paper - General Knowledge Questions

Following is the model paper for JKC Mentors Recruitment in Telangana State. The written test will be held on 22nd July 2014 at various degree colleges in the state of Telangana. Following is the model paper for General Knowlege Section of the JKC recruitment exam. The answers are given below the questions:

1) Garampani sanctuary is located at
a) Junagarh in Gujarat
b) Diphu in Assam
c) Hyderabad in Telangana
d) Kohima in Nagaland
Answer: b

2) The unit of current is
a) ohm
b) watt
c) ampere
d) jowl
Answer: c

3) Thomas cup is related to which of the following games?
a) badminton
b) table tennis
c) lawn tennis
d) billiards
Answer: a

4) Tiger Woods is related to which of the following games?
a) Golf
b) Tennis
c) Boxing
d) Table Tennis
Answer: a

5) The first foreigner to receive Bharat Ratna was
a) Nelson Mandela
b) C.V. Raman
c) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
d) None of the above
Answer: c

6) First general elections to the parliament in India was held in
a) 1954
b) 1952
c) 1950
d) 1948
Answer: b

7) The first Asian / India to get Nobel Prize in Physics was
a) S. Chandrasekhar
b) Mother Teresa
c) C.V. Raman
d) Rabindranath Tagore
Answer: c

8) The largest deposits of mica is in
a) Russia
b) India
c) Ukraine
d) Germany
Answer: b

9) How many Lok Sabha seats are there in Telangana State?
a) 16
b) 17
c) 18
d) 19
Answer: b

10) A normal adult dog will have
a) 32 teeth
b) 34 teeth
c) 38 teeth
d) 42 teeth
Answer: d

21 March 2024

Railway Assistant Loco Pilot Previous Question Paper

Here we are giving more questions for RRB Assistant Loco Pilots Written examination. The questions are from General Science, General Awareness / General Knowledge. The answers are also provided at the end of the questions. The previous questions (1-18) can be obtained from the earlier post / categories (Railway Jobs OR RRB OR Model Papers). These question are from RRB Assistant loco Pilot exam conducted by RRB Ranchi.

19. Germanium possesses-
1) Two valence electrons 2) Three valence electrons
3) Four valence electrons 4) Five valence electrons

20. Share of export from India is the maximum to the following country-
1) U.S.A. 2) U.K. 3) U.A.E. 4) Japan

21. Which of the following is not a property of difference amplifier?
1) Capacitor is used in it 2) It is used to compare two signals
3) Difference amplifier yields more than the direct couple amplifier
4) Frequency of difference amplifier remains flat from zero to high frequency

22. Where are the caves of Ajanta located?
1) Orissa 2) Kerala
3) Maharashtra 4) Madhya Pradesh

23. Calorie value is the least of the following materials-
1) Coal gas 2) Producer gas 3) Steam fiery gas 4) Oil gas
24. The value of ∫x is equal to which of the following?
1) x tan x 2) log cos x
3) x tan x + log cos t 4) x tan x - log cos x

25. The colonial system of the company was formalized by-
1) Battle of Plassey 2) Battle of Buxar
3) Battle of Panipat 4) Battle of Wandiwash

26. Natural rubber is polymer of-
1) Isobutane 2) Isoprene 3) Propane 4) Isopropene

27. For generating large currents on D.C. generators which winding is generally preferred?
1) Progressive wave winding 2) Lap winding
3) Retrogressive wave winding 4) Current depends on design

28. A.C. servomotor is basically a/ an .....
1) Universal motor 2) Single phase induction motor
3) Two phase induction motor 4) Three phase induction motor

29. co-efficient of velocity as compared to the coefficient of discharge is-
1) Less 2) More
3) Equal 4) Less or more depending on flow

30. The capacitance, in force-current analogy, is analogous to-
1) Momentum 2) Velocity 3) Displacement 4) Mass

31. . .... signal will become zero when the feedback signal and reference signs are
equal.
1) Input 2) Actuating 3) Feedback 4) Reference

32. Most of the weather phenomena take place in the-
1) Stratosphere 2) Troposphere 3) Tropopause 4) Ionosphere

33. Motor-generator set for D.C. are welding has generator of-
1) Series type 2) Shunt type
3) Differentially compound type 4) Level compound type

34. Which of the following motors is preferred when quick speed reversal is the main
consideration?
1) Squirrel cage induction motor 2) Wound rotor induction motor
3) Synchronous motor 4) D.C.motor

35. In case of ball bearings, which part is made harder than others-
1) Ball 2) Outer-race
3) Inner race 4) All are made equally hard

36. Selectivity of the receiver can be increased by which of the following?
1) By using more tuned circuit
2) By decreasing number of tuned circuit
3) By using loudspeaker
4) By increasing gain of the receiver

37. An electronics circuits in which different components such as Diode, Resistor
and Capacitor etc. are connected separately is called-
1) Chassis 2) Printed board
3) Integrated circuit 4) Discrete circuit

39. What are Ferrites?
1) Magnetic but have low resistance 2) Magnetic but have high resistance
3) Non-magnetic with low resistance 4) Non-magnetic with high resistance

40. The translator program that converts source code in high level language into
machine code line by line is called-
1) Assembler 2) Compiler 3) Loader 4) Interpreter

41. National Library, the largest in India is located at-
1) Chennai 2) Mumbai 3) Delhi 4) Kolkata

42. Pak Strait joins which of the following two countries-
1) India-Pakistan 2) India-Myanmar 3) India-Sri lanka 4) None of these

43. Who had appointed the first Prime Minister of India?
1) Lord Mountbatten 2) C.Rajagopalachari
3) President of India 4) None of these

44. Who had demarcated the border-line between India and Pakistan?
1) McMohan 2) Lord Durand 3) Radcliffe 4) None of these

45. Approximate thermal efficiency of petrol engine is-
1) 20% 2) 30% 3) 50% 4) 75%

46. Which of the following is the universal gate?
1) NAND-Gate 2) OR-Gate 3) AND-Gate 4) NOT-Gate

47. How will a red flower appear, if it is seen through a green glass?
1) Red 2) Brown 3) White 4) Green

48. What is the unit of electrical energy?
1) Ampere 2) volt 3) Watt 4) Kilowatt-hour

49. A diode .....
1) Functions only in one direction
2) Functions in both the directions
3) Does not function at all
4) It gets damaged, when voltage is applied

50. What is the frequency of the receiver?
1) 488 kHz 2) 445 kHz 3) 455 kHz 4) 456 kHz

Answers:

18-2; 19-3; 20-1; 21-1; 22-3; 23-2; 24-3; 25-2; 26-2; 27-2; 28-3; 29-2; 30-4; 31-2; 32-2; 33-3; 34-4; 35-4; 36-4; 37-3; 38-3; 39-2; 40-2; 41-4; 42-3; 43-1; 44-3; 45-2; 46-1; 47-2; 48-4; 49-1; 50-4.

RRB Assistant Loco Pilots Previous Paper with Answers

Following are some objective type model questions along with answers for RRB Assistant Loco Pilot Examinations to be conducted by Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) as part of its Centralised Recruitment process. The questions are from previous question paper of the exam conducted by RRB, Ranchi for Assistant Loco Pilots.

1. What is the value of knee voltage of silicon diode?
1) 0.3 V 2) 0.33 V 3) 0.7 V 4) 1.1 V

2. Which organisation has proposed first to constitute the Constitution Assembly to
form the Indian Constitution?
1) Swaraj Party in 1928 2) Indian National Congress in 1936
3) Muslim League in 1942 4) By all parties convention in 1946

3. There is 20 volt across the inductor and 15 volt across the resistance in the a.c.
supplied series R-L circuit. What would be the supply voltage?
1) 20 volt 2) 15 volt 3) 25 volt 4) 17.5 volt

4. A transformer mainly transforms .....
1) Current 2) Voltage 3) Frequency 4) Power

5. What is the power factor of a pure resistor circuit?
1) One 2) Zero 3) Leading 4) Lagging

6. Functions of N.S.D.L. are related to-
1) Bearer bonds 2) GDRs 3) Electronic share 4) Debenture

7. There are rings around which of the following planets?
1) Uranus 2) mars 3) Jupiter 4) Saturn

8. ..... is used to heat the non-conductors.
1) Eddy current heating 2) Arc heating
3) Induction heating 4) Dielectric heating

9. What is the S.I. Unit of magnetic flux density?
1) Gauss 2) Tesla 3) Oersted 4) Weber

10. Which type of oscillator is most stable in simple circuit?
1) Crystalline oscillator 2) Clapp oscillator
3) Colpitts oscillator 4) Armstrong oscillator

11. Where is the headquarters of Geological Survey of India located?
1) Patna 2) Dehradun 3) Kolkata 4) Agra

12. What is the proper use of signal generator?
1) Designing 2) Testing 3) Repairing 4) All the above

13. Nasik is situated on the bank of which river?
a) Godavari 2) Narmada 3) Tapti 4) Shipra

14. Who started the Shaka era?
1) Ashoka 2) Chandragupta-II
3) Kanishka 4) Harsha

15. If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, then for that
cylinder the ......
1) exhaust till be smoky
2) piston rings would stick into piston grooves
3) scavenging occurs
4) engine starts overheating

16. The information is sent by CW transmitter by-
1) Changing the audio frequency 2) Interrupting radio signal
3) Using microphone 4) Using camera

17. Moisture can be removed from lubricating oil using .................
1) Tubular centrifugal 2) Clarifier
3) Sparkler filter 4) Vacuum leaf filter

Answers: 1-3; 2-2; 3-3; 4-2; 5-1; 6-4; 7-4; 8-4; 9-2; 10-1; 11-2; 12-4; 13-1; 14-3; 15-1;16-1; 17-1.

12 March 2024

AP Forest Officers Model Question Papers - GK, Essay and Maths

The Department of Forests, Government of Andhra Pradesh has released recruitment notification for the posts of Forest Beat Officers (FBO), Forest Section Officers (FSO), Assistant Beat Officers (ABO), Technical Assistants, Thanedars and Bungalow watchers. Following are the details of model papers for these written examinations:

The question papers for FBO, FSO, ABO, Thanedars and Bungalow Watchers consists of following sections with objective multiple choice type questions:

1) General Essay
2) General Knowledge
3) General Maths

Written examinations for all the above posts in Forest department are scheduled in April 2014. Following are model papers for this examination:

Essay:

A. Independence day celebrations in your school.
B. Importance of wild life.
C. Describe about the National Flag of our country.
D. Do we need to protect our environment? If so why? How can we protect our environment?
E. What are the steps to be taken for economic development of our country?
F. Write about the need of Information Technology in everyday life.

General Knowledge:

1) What is the total number of states in our country?
(a) 22 (b) 25 (c) 28 (d) 30

2) Name the state having longest coast in our country.
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Gujarat (c) Karnataka (d) Tamilnadu

3) What is our state tree?
(a) Mango tree (b) Teak tree (c) Coconut tree (d) Neem tree

4) Which city has the highest population after Hyderabad in our state?
(a) Visakahapatnam (b) Vijayawada (c) Warangal (d) Tirupati

General Maths:

1. Which of the following is equivalent to 5/2?
A) 2.25 B) 2.5 C) 5.2 D) 5.25

2. An unbiased die is thrown. What is the probability of getting a multiple of 3.
A) 1/3 B) ½ C) 2/3 D) 1/4

3. What is the volume of the rectangular solid shown below?
A) 10 cubic inches B) 25 cubic inches C) 30 cubic inches D) 62 cubic inches

4. How many millimeters are in 20 centimeters?
A) 0.02 millimeters B) 0.2millimeters C) 200 millimeters D) 20,000 millimeters

5. What value of x satisfies the equation 4 x + 2 = 22 ?
A) 3.5 B) 5.0 C) 6.0. D) 7.5

25 August 2024

APPSC Key For Hostel Welfare Officers Paper 2 Exam 2012

Following are the questions of Hostel Welfare Officers Paper 2 (Concerned Subject). Key / Answers also provided for these sample / model question from the original question paper. The APPSC has conducted this examination on 12th August 2012. The duration of the Paper 2 is 150 minutes and for a total of 150 marks. The questions will be from 'Concerned Subject'. See the questions below:

1) Philosophy of Education needs
1) Insight Vision
2) Experience
3) Spiritual knowledge
4) Yoga and Divine life

2) Epistemology is the study of
1) Values 2) Ideas
3) Knowledge 4) Social norms

3) Naturalism believes in ---------- education.
1) Teacher - centred
2) Child - centred
3) Society - centred
4) Curriculum - centred

4) Philosophy imparts wisdom of
1) Religion 2) World 3) God 4) Universe

5) The ideas of Pragmatic teacher are based on
1) Reality 2) Imagination
3) Intuition 4) Empiricism

6) According to whom, School is a miniature of Society?
1) Vitz 2) Gandhiji
3) John Dewey 4) Aristotle

7) Axiology is the study of
1) Knowledge 2) Values
3) Universe 4) Religion

8) Pragmatism focuses on
1) Action 2) Thought
3) Imagination 4) Intuition

9) Idealists believe that discipline is possible through
1) Freedom 2) Control
3) Responsibility 4) Love

10) The author of the book 'Social Change in Modern India' is
1) MN Srinivas
2) Kuppuswamy
3) Viswanath
4) JC Aggarwal

Key / Answers: 1)1 2)3 3) 4)3 5)4 6)3 7)2 8)1 9)2 10)1

APPSC Hostel Welfare Officers Grade 2 Question Paper with Key

Following are the model questions and answers taken from Hostel Welfare Officers Grade II examination conducted by APPSC on 12th August 2012. The question are from Paper 1 (General Studies) of the examination. These question are representative of the question paper. We shall try to post the complete question paper soon.

1) The Dutch set up their first factory at
1) Masulipatnam 2) Surat 3) Cochin 4) Pulicat

2) The first Governor General of India was
1) Lord Barlow 2) Lord Minto
3) Lord Amherst 4) Lord William Bentinck

3) The Deoband School of Islamic Technology was set up in the year
1) 1865 2) 1866 3) 1867 4) 1868

4) The last Governor General and the first Viceroy of India was
1) Lord Elgin 2) Lord Mayo
3) Lord Lawrence 4) Lord Canning

5) Simon Commission visited India during the period of
1) Lord Irwin 2) Lord Reading
3) Lord Willingdon 4) Lord Wavell

6) Which Articles of the Indian Constitution contain the distribution of Legislative powers between Union and States?
1) 245 to 255
2) 246 to 256
3) 247 to 257
4) 248 to 258

7) The Constitution of India provides for the establishment of
1) Finance Commission
2) Election Commission
3) Union Public Service Commission
4) All the above

8) The State of Jammu and Kashmir has a special status under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
1) 370 2) 371 3) 372 4) 373

9) Of the following, who was the Member of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution of India?
1) KM Munshi 2) NG Ayyangar
3) AK Ayyar 4) All the above

10) Types of jurisdiction of Supreme Court is / are
1) Original
2) Appellate
3) Advisory
4) All the Above

Key / Answers: 1)4 2)4 3)2 4)4 5)1 6)1 7)4 8)1 9)4 10)4

27 July 2024

APPSC Group 4 Secretarial Ability Model Questions 2012

APPSC has scheduled Group 4 examination on 11th August 2012. The examination is aimed at recruiting candidates for the posts of junior assistants, junior stenographers and typists in various AP Ministerial Services and AP Secretarial Sub Service. There will be two papers in Group 4 written test. These are General Studies and Secretarial Abilities. About 11 lakhs candidates have applied for the Group 4 examination. Following are some model questions for the paper, Secretarial Ability:

1) What is the correct spell word in the following?
a) Optimum b) Ocurence
c) comittee d) recommend

2) I can not come with you ----------- (fill up the blank with correct word)
a) if it will rain today
b) if it won't train today
c) if it would rain today
d) if it rains todays

3) JD, KF, ----- , PM, TR
a) MI b) NJ c) NI d) OJ

4) BTO, DSQ, FRS, HQU, ---------
a) IPY b) JPW c) GPW d) JRW

5) Z, T, O, K, H, --------
a) E b) J c) F d) D

6) He had absented himself -------- the office for the day. Fill the blank with suitable word.
a) in b) to c) on d) from

7) Fill the following sequence. EFG : HIJ : : MNO : ---------
a) NNL b) NPN c) LPN d) NPL

8) If JUDICIAL is coded as JUDICILA, the word GLORIOUS can be coded as --------
a) GOLIRIOSU b) GOLRSIOU
c) GOLIROSU d) GOLISUOR

Find add man out from the following:

9) 12, 25, 52, 55, 57, 115, 117
a) 55 b) 117 c) 25 d) 52

10) 2478, 819, 257, 84, 24, 6, 1
a) 257 b) 24 c) 6 d) 819

11) 2,3,6,15,45, 166, 630
a) 45 b) 630 c) 6 d) 166

12) 5, 10, 17, 27, 37, 50, 65
a) 10 b) 17 c) 27 d) 37

05 July 2024

RRB Asst. Loco Pilot General Awareness Model Questions

Following are model questions with answers for General Awareness section of the Assistant Loco Pilot Examination to be conducted by Railway Recruitment Board (RRB). The examination consists of Objective multiple choice questions on General Awareness, Arithmetic, General Science, General Intelligence and Reasoning etc. We have already posted some model questions on Arithmetic. Following questions are also useful for other examinations which have questions on General Awareness:

RRB - Technicians Recruitment 2014
RRB - Assistant Loco Pilots Recruitment 2014
RRB - Assistant Loco Pilot and Technicians - Exam Syllabus
RRB - Assistant Loco Pilot and Technicians - Previous papers
Assistant Loco Pilot and Technicians - Arithmetic Questions

1) Who composed National Song of India?
a) Rabindranath Tagore b) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
c) Sri Aurobindo d) Mahatma Gandhi

2) The first Field Marshal of India was
a) A. Vaidya b) K.M. Cariappa
c) Sunder Ji d) SHFJ Manekshaw

3) Which is the first month of our National Calender?
a) Bhadra b) Phalguna c) Chaitra d) Asadha

4) Who was the first women judge of Supreme Court of India?
a) Miss Liela Seth b) Miss M. Fathima Bibi
c) Miss Anna Chandi d) Anna George Malhotra

5) Salar Jung Museum is located at
a) Hyderabad b) New Delhi
c) Pune d) Allahabad

6) Samadhi of Lal Bahadur Shastri is
a) Shantivana b) Shakti Sthal
c) Rajghat d) Vijay Ghat

7) Which one of the following Indian Banks is not nationalised Bank?
a) Corporation Bank b) Dena Bank
c) Federal Bank d) Vijaya Bank

8) Which one of the following countries is the leading producer of uranium?
a) United States of America b) Canada
c) Germany d) Zambia

9) Who among the following wrote 'The Communist Manifesto' along with Karl Marx?
a) Emile Durkheim b) Friedrich Engeles
c) Robert Owen d) Max Weber

10) At which one of the following places did Mahatma Gandhi first start his Stayagraha?
a) Ahmedabad b) Bardoli
c) Champaran d) Kheda

Answers: 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4 -b, 5-a, 6-d, 7-c, 8-b, 9-b, 10-b.

09 April 2024

RRB Group D - Reasoning Model Questions

Following are model questions for RRB Group D recruitment. Questions are given in English. The question will also be given in the regional languages chosen by the candidate. Questions are given from Reasoning section. Candidates can practice similar questions for securing good marks. They can collect material from previous papers of RRB and other similar examinations.

1) ZA : YB :: XC : ?
1) NM 2) OP 3) WD 4) YZ

2) EVRI : VEIR :: XWKV : ?
1) XWVK 2) WXKW 3) GOQE 4)CDPE

3) EGIK : FILO :: FHJL : ?
1) JGMP 2) JGPM 3) GJPM 4) GJMP

4) 1L2, 1Q7, 2T0, -, 2X4, 2Z6
1) 2W1 2) 2V2 3) 1M4 4) 1P5

5) C4X, F9U, I16R, -
1) L27P 2) L25O 3) L25P 4) K25P

6) gfe - ig - eii - fei - gf - ii
1) eifgi 2) figie 3) ifgie 4) ifige

7) A, C, F, H, -, M
1) I 2) J 3) K 4) L

8) 48 : 24 : : ? : ?
1) 64 : 36 2) 2 : 1 3) 22 : 10 4) 134 : 112

9) 123 : 14 : : 234 : ?
1) 25 2) 27 3) 29 4) None of these

10) 80 : 99 : : 3 : ?
1) 8 2) 7 3) 10 4) 9

11) 5 /6 : 30 : : 8 /9 :
1) 80 2) 72 3) 71 4) 69

12) If you write CONDEMN as CNODMEN, how to write TEACHER - ?
1) TEACHER 2) TAEECHR 3) TCAEEHR 4) TAECEHR

13) If you write REJECTION as SGMIHZPWW, how to write MECHANIC - ?
1) NGFLFTPK 2) NGPLFTPK 3) NGFKFTPK 4) NGPTPKIL

14) ZW, TQ, SP, NL : Identify the odd man out:
1) ZW 2) TQ 3) SP 4) NL

15) TIW, REB, CPA, AOT: Identify the odd man out.
1) TIW 2) REB 3) CPA 4) AOT

16) 80 -9, 64 -8, 36 -6, 7 -49: Identify the odd man out.
1) 80 -9 2) 64 -8 3) 36 -6 4) 7 -49

17) 11, 13, 15, 17: Identify the odd man out.
1) 11 2) 13 3) 15 4) 17

18) 60000006, 2002, 400004, 500005: Identify the odd man out.
1) 60000006 2) 2002 3) 400004 4) 500005

19) A clock is showing 4 hours and 40 minutes in the mirror. What is the exact time?
1) 7 hours and 25 minutes 2) 2 hours and 40 minutes
3) 8 hours and 40 minutes 4) 7 hours and 20 minutes.

13 January 2024

Bank PO Exams - General Awareness Model Questions

1. RBI appointed ------- as the chairman of the committee to examine a range of emerging issues pertaining to regulation of the NBFCs (Non - Banking Financial Companies) sector
1) Syamala Gopinath 2) Anand Sinha 3) Usha Thorat 4) Subhir Gokarn 5) C. Ranga Rajan

2. How many habitations will have Bank branches by 2011-2012 having the population cover of more than 2000 as per the
statement of Finance Minister in the budget?
1) 80,000 2) 90,000 3) 73,000 4) 15,000 5) 64,000

3. Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments =
1) Primary Deficit 2) Capital Deficit 3) Revenue Deficit 4) Total Deficit 5) Monetary Deficit

4. Railway Minister Mamata Benarjee initiated to start Four Bio-diesel units in the coming years. Presently It decided to start one at
Raipur and another at
1) Kolkatta 2) Hyderabad 3) Chennai 4) Mumbai 5) New Delhi

5. On 31 March 2011, the ‘Provisional Population Totals for Census 2011’ has been announced by the Census Commissioner
India. The wrong option is
1) The total population of India is 121.02 crores
2) Males estimated to 62.37 crores and Females estimated to 58.65 crores
3) During 2001-2011, there is increase of 17.64 % growth in population
4) Compare to previous population census in 2001, Male population raised by 17.19 percent and Female population increased by 18.12 percent
5) None

6. To reflect the actual movement of prices at the micro-level, India started new Consumer Price Index (CPI) from 18 February 2011,
having the base year at
1) 2011 2) 2009 3) 2008 4) 2004 5) 2010

7. In order to control the diseases, Indian government floated many schemes and started vaccination programs. Pick the wrong combination.
1) ABC/AR program - to control Rabies 2) NMEP - to control Malaria 3) MMR - vaccine against Measles, Mumps
and rubella 4) OPV - to fight against Leprosy 5) DPT - to fight against Diphtheria, Pertussis and Tetanus

8. In the historic decision, on 3 January 2011, the Government of India allowed ------ to cast vote in India?
1) Americans 2) Travellers 3) UK citizens 4) Non-Resident Indians 5) All of above

9. The trophies and Cups list is given. Pick up correct one.
1) Wimbledon (1877) - Tennis 2) Durand Cup (1888) - Football
3) Thomas Cup (1948) - Badminton 4) Hopman Cup (1989) - Tennis 5) All of above

10. The Miss America 2011 winner is?
1) Manasvi Mamgai 2) Alexandria Mills 3) Nicole Faria 4) Ximena Navarrete 5) Teresa Scanlan

11. During 2010 - 2011, Banks launched a programme to inform, educate and motivate people to open bank accounts and to be
continued in the fiscal year 2011 - 2012
1) Swatantra 2) Sakthi 3) Suraksha 4) Swabhimaan 5) None

12. ------- may be infused by the union government in State Bank of India in the next fiscal year via rights issue. SBI asked
to infuse 250 billion rupees.
1) 100 billion rupees 2) 200 billion rupees 3) 150 billion rupees 4) 450 billion rupees 5) 600 billion rupees

13. In this Budget, the Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) increased from 18 % to
1) 17.5 % 2) 19.5 % 3) 21.5 % 4) 18.5 % 5) 24 %

14. Gilt-edged securities mean -----
1) Gold bonds 2) High-graded and low risk securities 3) The duplicate bonds 4) Certificates issued by Post Office 5) Stocks recognised by SEBI

15. As per the Provisional Population Totals for Census 2011 announced by the Census Commissioner India, the literary
rate in India is (As per 2001 census it was 64.83 %).
1) 74.04 % 2) 70.41% 3) 85.01% 4) 90.24% 5) 91.15%

16. India’s largest Naphtha Cracker Plant at IOC complex at Panipat (Haryana), having capacity to produce eight lakh tonnes annually of ethylene and six lakh tonnes of propylene, the raw material to manufacture

1) Computers 2) Tubes 3) Nuclear Bombs 4) Polymers 5) TV sets

17. On 5 March 2011, the central government in a report said that the wheat production area in rabi season increased by ----- lakh
hectares.
1) 8.5 2) 9.13 3) 5.26 4) 16 5) 10.46

18. Which committee submitted to review the Motor Vehicle Act?
1) Parasaran 2) Chandra Babu Naidu 3) Sunder 4) Rajiv Sharma 5) Swaminarayan

19. IAF inducted ‘Super Hercules’ Transport Aircraft, imported from --------
1) Russia 2) UK 3) France 4) USA 5) Italy

20. How many nations are there as members in SAARC?
1) 27 2) 18 3) 8 4) 5 5) 24

Answers / Key : 1-3; 2-3; 3-1; 4-3; 5-5; 6-5; 7-4; 8-4; 9-5; 10-5; 11-4; 12-3; 13-4; 14-2; 15-1; 16-4; 17-5; 18-3; 19-4; 20-3.

29 December 2023

APPSC Assistant Executive Engineers Recruitment 2012 Syllabus and Model Papers

Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission (APPSC) has announced notification for the recruitment of Assistant Executive Engineers (AEE) in various Government departments. There are 1716 vacancies in total and these are distributed for departments such as Irrigatin and CAD Engineering Services, R and B Engineering Services, Panchayat Raj and Tribal Welfare Engineering Services as mentioned below. Candidates will have to apply online through www.apspsc.gov.in and selection will be based on the written examination and interviews. Written test will be held on 1st July 2012. Applicants age should be between 18 - 34 years as on 01/07/2011. Scale of pay for appointed candidates is Rs. 16,150 - 42,590. Here follows other details:

1) Assistant Executive Engineers (Civil) in I and CAD Engineering Service. 1170 posts
2) Assistant Executive Engineers (Mechanical) in I and CAD Engineering Service: 130 posts
3) Assistant Executive Engineers (Civil) in R and B Engineering Service: 174 posts
4) Assistant Executive Engineers (Electrical) in R and B Engineering Service: 14 posts
5) Assistant Executive Engineers in Panchayat Raj in Civil and Mechanical Branches Engineering Service: 214 posts
6) Assistant Executive Engineers in Tribal Welfare Engineering Service in Civil and Mechanical Engineering Branch: 14 posts.

1) Qualifications for Assistant Executive Engineers (AEE - Civil and Mechanical) in I and CAD Engineering Service: Candidates must have a Bachelor’s Degree (BE or B.Tech or B.Sc Engineering) in Civil Engineering or Mechanical Engineering (depending on the post applied by the candidate) of a University / institute / college in India duly recognized by the University Grants Commission / All India Council for Technical Education or any of its equivalent qualification.

2) Qualifications required for Assistant Executive Engineers (AEE - Civil and Electrical) in Roads and Building Engineering Services: Applicants should have BE or B.Tech or B.Sc in Civil Engineering or Electrical Engineering depending on the post applied. The degree should be recognised by UGC or AICTE or any other equivalent organisation.

3) Eligibility and Qualifications for Assistant Executive Engineers (AEE) in Panchayat Raj in Civil and Mechanical Branches Engineering Services: Candidates should have Bachelor’s Degree (BE or B.Tech or B.Sc. in Civil or Mechanical Engineering OR must have passed in Section A and B of AMIE Examination conducted by Institute of Engineers in Civil or Mechanical branches.

4) Qualifications required for Assistant Executive Engineers in Tribal Welfare Engineering Service in Civil and Mechanical Engineering Branches: Candidates should have Graduation in Engineering (Civil or Mechanical branches) from any recognised university or institute or college in India or any of its equivalent qualification.

Candidates have to pay the required fee through downloading challan from APPSC website. Fee is Rs. 100 for application processing and Rs. 120 for Examination. Payment of Rs. 100 is must for all candidates and there will be exemptions for examination fees. These details are available with notification on the website. You can pay the fee through AP Online Centers or State Bank of India.

Scheme and Structure of Written Examination: There will be a Written (Objective Type) Examination for AEE recruitment. Total examination will be for 450 marks. Written examination will be held at Hyderabad, Visakhapatnam, Vijayawada, Tirupati and Warangal. The examination consists of three papers as follows:

1) Paper -1: General Studies and Mental ability : 150 Marks - 150 Questions - Duration is 150 Minutes.
2) Paper-2: Optional Subject: 150 Marks - 150 Questions - Duration is 150 Minutes (Allowed branches are Civil, Mechanical Engineering or Electrical Engineering). The syllabus and question papers for all these branches will be separate and except Civil and Mechanical Engineering.
3) Paper-3: Optional subject: 150 Marks - 150 Questions - 150 Minutes (Options are Civil Engineering or Mechanical Engineering or Electrical Engineering).

Important dates for APPSC - AEE Recruitment 2012:

1) The Written Examination: : 01-07-2024 (tentative)
2) Start of submission of online application: 24-04-2024
3) Last date for registering online application: 23-05-2024
4) Last date for payment of fee : 21-05-2012.

22 December 2023

APEPDCL Sub Engineers, Jr. Assistants and Lineman Jobs 2011 - 2012

Eastern Power Distribution Company of AP Limited (APEPDCL), Visakhapatnam has announced recruitment notification for the posts of sub engineers, junior assistants in the cadre of LDCs and Junior Lineman on regular basis. Vacancies include backlog posts also. Selected candidates will be under training and probation for prescribed period with minimum pay scale and allowances. Candidates who have required qualifications and meet eligibility requirements mentioned below shall submit their applications to ' Chief General Manager- HRD, APEPDCL Corporate Office, P and T Colony, Seethammadhara, Visakhapatnaam-530013'. APEPDCL notification is the latest one in the series of recruitment announcements by APGENCO for Assistant Engineers, and job notifications by APTRANSCO and Discoms such as APSPDCL and APCPDCL. Following are details of posts, eligibility, selection and application procedure:

1) Sub- Engineers (SE): 26 posts
2) Junior Assistants (LDC): 58 posts
3) Junior Lineman: 937 posts

Eligibility Conditions: For sub-engineer posts, candidates must have Diploma / Graduation (B.E./ B.Tech. / AMIE) in the Concerned Engineering branch. Age should be between 18-34 years. All the candidates should apply online through APEPDCL website at www.apeasternpower.com. Sub Engineer posts may be available in Electrical, Mechanical, Electronics and Civil branches. Selection will be based on the written examination. Model papers for Sub Engineers exam will help the candidates to get an idea of the examination.

For Junior Assistants Posts, candidates should have qualified in graduation in any discipline. They should have proficiency in computers. For Junior Lineman posts, applicants need ITI qualification in the concerned trade or subject. For sub engineer posts, candidates with distance education qualification will be considered if the degree is approved by DEC along with UGC and AICTE. Candidates will be required to attend for a written examination at Visakhapatnam center only. The written test may be conducted at other centers also based on the applications received. Application cost: Rs. 150, Examination Fee: Rs. 350. Application format, eligibility details and other terms of employment available at www.apeasternpower.com .

19 December 2023

APGENCO Assistant Engineers - AE Recruitment - December 2011

APGENCO (Andhra Pradesh Power Generation Corporation - www.apgenco.gov.in), Hyderabd has announced recruitment notification No.5/ CGM (Adm.)/ 2011 for the posts Trainee Assistant Engineers (TAE) for Engineering Graduates in Electrical, Mechanical, Electronics and Civil branches. There are 411 posts in total. Out of these 61 posts will be filled under Limited Recruitment and remaining 350 will comes under General Recruitment. Selection will be based on the written Examination to be conducted on 22nd January 2012. Meanwhile, another big recruitment notification is in line from APTRANSCO for the posts of sub engineers and assistant engineers. Following are details of eligibility, number of posts for various branches, application procedure, syllabus and model papers for APGENCO recruitment.

Trainee Assistant Engineers (TAE): 411 posts (Electrical - 219, Mechanical- 100, Electronics - 30 and Civil - 62); Pay Scale: Rs. 23115 -955- 25025- 1115 - 30600- 1280- 35720. Age should not be more than 34 years as on 01-12-2011. Upper age limit will be relaxed up to 5 years for SC, ST and BC candidates and 10 years relaxation applicable for physically challenged (Handicapped) candidates. APGENCO Model papers and questions for various branches will help the candidates to have a basic understanding of the examination. Following are details of eligibility and qualifications:

1) Electrical Engineeering: Applicants should have B.E/ B.Tech/ A.M.I.E. in Electrical and Electronics Engineering or equivalent qualification as on 01-12-2011.

2) Mechanical Engineering: Candidates must possess B.E or B.Tech or A.M.I.E. in Mechanical
Engineering as on 01-12-2011.

3) Electronics Engineering: Applicants need B.E or B.Tech. or A.M.I.E. in Electronics and Communication Engineering or Instrumentation and Controls Engineering OR Electronics and Instrumentation Engineering or Electronics and Control Engineering OR Instrumentation Engineering OR Electronics Instrumentation and Power OR Power electronics or equivalent qualification as on
01-12-2024

4) Civil Engineering: Candidates should have B.E or B.Tech or A.M.I.E. in Civil Engineering as on 01-12-2011.

Selection Procedure: There will be two sections in the question paper. Questions will be in objective multiple choice type with four options.

1) Section A : Questions will be asked on core academic curriculum of respective discipline / branch. The syllabus for the written examination is available on the website
2) Section B : Questions will be on analytical aptitude of the candidate.

Application Procedure: Interested candidates can apply online only through Apgenco website www.apgenco.gov.in OR directly through apgenco.cgg.gov.in. There will be a link mentioning 'Apply Online'. You have to click on that and proceed with the application process. Detailed notification and user guide for online application is also available on the website. Online application process starts from 20th December 2011 and closes on 3rd January 2012. Power Distribution companies such as APCPDCL and APSPDCL  have also announced recruitment notification for the posts of Junior Assistants, Sub Engineers and Junior Lineman. These are good opportunities for those interested in Government jobs with Engineering degree or diploma.

11 December 2024

APTRANSCO Recruitment for Linemen, Sub Engineer, AE, Junior Assistants 2011

Here is an opportunities galore for Engineers and Diploma holders in Andhra Pradesh. The Government of Andhra Pradesh has decided to recruit candidates for 6263 posts available in various sections of electricity department. Andhra Pradesh Transmission Corporation (APTRANSCO) and Regional Distribution Companies (DCLs) such as APEPDCL, APSPDCL, APCPDCL and APNPDCL are gearing up for the recruitment of Junior Linemen (JLM), Junior Assistant, Sub Engineer (SE) and Assistant Engineers (AE) in their respective regions. APTRANCO has already released notification for the posts of Junior Linemen and Sub Engineers. which will be Recruitment notification will be released on 15th December 2011 and the same will be displayed on APTRANSCO website at www.aptransco.gov.in . Applications may be received through aptransco.cgg.gov.in Model Questions for the APTRANSCO Exams will help the candidates to get a basic idea of the question paper. Following are details of number of posts, eligibility, selection, model papers, previous questions and application procedure:

1) APTRANSCO: 2261 posts (Junior Linemen: 1648 posts, Junior Assistant - 16 posts, Sub Engineer: 347 posts. Assistant Engineer - 250 posts), Address: Aptransco, Vidyut Soudha, Khairatabad, Hyderabad-82. Website: www.aptransco.gov.in .

2) APEPDCL (Eastern Power Distribution Company Limited): 1030 posts (Junior Linemen: 937 posts, Junior Assistant - 58 posts, Sub Engineer: 35 posts), Address: APEPDCL Corporate Office, P and T Colony, Seethammadhara, Visakhapatnaam- 530013, Website: www.apeasternpower.com

3) APSPDCL Recruitment  (Southern Power Distribution Company Limited): 1460 posts (Junior Linemen: 1316 posts, Junior Assistant - 144), Address: Corporate Office; APSPDCL; Kesavayanagunta; Tirupati- 517503. Website: www.apspdcl.in .

4) APCPDCL Recruitment  (Central Power Distribution Company Limited): 1269 posts (Junior Linemen: 1169 posts, Junior Assistant - 100), Address: Central Power Distribution Company of Andhra Pradesh Limited, Mint Compound, Hyderabad- 500004. Website: www.apcentralpower.com .

5) APNPDCL (Northern Power Distribution Company Limited): 243 posts (Junior Assistant - 182 posts, Sub Engineer: 61 posts), address: APNPDCL, Warangal. Website: www.apnpdcl.in

Eligibility Requirements for various posts of APTRANSCO:

1) Sub Engineers: In the sub engineers category, vacancies are available in the branches in Electrical, Civil, Electronics and Mechanical disciplines. Applicants should have Graduation (B.E./ B.Tech. / AMIE) in the Concerned Engineering branch. Age should be between 18-34 years. All the candidates should apply online through APTRANSCO website. For all the posts, selection will be based on written examination. There will be no interview. APGENCO has also announced new recruitment notification  for the posts of Trainee Assistant Engineers with 411 vacancies. Posts are available for Electrical, Electronics, Mechanical and Civil Engineering candidates with B.Tech, B.E. or AMIE qualifications. We have earlier published  Model Question Papers for Sub Engineers - Electrical/ Electronics/ Civil/ Mechanical for these posts and they will be useful for candidates also applying for APTRANSCO Jobs.

2) Assistant Engineers: Applicants should have B.E/B.TECH/A.M.I.E./ Electrical or Electronics Engineering or equivalent from any recognized University in India. Distance mode qualification will also be considered, provided the University shall have recognition from Distance Education Council (Under the Indira Gandhi National Open University) in addition to UGC and AICTE. Age should be below 34 years. Relaxations applicable as per rules of the government.

For Junior Linemen, candidates should have ITI qualification in the concerned discipline / trade. There seems to be some changes and relaxations in the recent past for the posts of Junior Linemen. For Junior Assistants, candidates need graduation in any discipline along with computer knowledge. Details of eligibility and qualifications for Junior Linemen will be posted here soon. For all the vacancies, candidates have to apply online after paying the fee through AP Online centers, e-seva or mee-seva centers. Detailed instructions for online application will be available on the respective websites mentioned above.

08 December 2024

VRO and VRA Logical Skills Model Questions

It was mentioned in the VRO and VRA recruitmet notification that there will be 10 questions on Logical Skills in the written test to be held on 30th January 2012. Questions in this section will be from the topics of simple logical skills and reasonong ability. Candidates can concentrate on practicing more and more old question papers of the examinations of similar nature. Other crucial section in the written examination is Arithmetic Skills, which has 30 marks weightage. Apart from these, General Studies and questions on issues and life style related to villages are given 60 marks weightage. Following are model questions related to logical skills:

1) The day after the day after tomorrow is four days before Monday. What day is it today?
A. Monday B. Tuesday C. Wednesday D. Thursday E. Friday

2) 1, 1, 4, 8, 9, 27, ?
A. 12 B. 16 C. 36 D.9

3) Directions: Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. You have to choose the answer

(1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(4) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
(5) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

1) How many students are there in the school?
I. The number of boys is 90 more than that of girls.
II. The percentage of boys to the percentage of girls is 145.

2) What is the two digit number?
I. The sum and difference of digits are 9
II. The unit's digit is less than the ten's digit.

3) What is the rate of compound interest?
I. The principal was invested for 4 years
II. The earned interest was Rs. 1491.

4) How is M related to P?
I. The mother of P, and K are sisters
II. The only shild of D and K is M.

5) Who is the immediate right of Mohan when Mohan, Salil, Bhushan, Suresh and Jayesh are sitting around a circle facing at the centre?
I. Salil is third to the left of Mohan
II. Bhushan is between Salil and Jayesh.

VRO and VRA Arithmetic Skills Model Paper Questions

Written Test for VRO and VRA recruitment in Andhra Pradehs will be held on 30th January 2012. There will be three sections in the question paper. Arithmetic Skills is an important part of the written examination. There will be 30 questions on Arithmetic for 30 marks. Those strong in this section will get an edge over other candidates. This is the difficult area for number of candidates. Apart from Arithmetic, candidates have to answer questions on General Studies also.

Questions in Arithmetic section will be in the 10th Class/ SSC standard. Candidates should thoroughly prepare the SSC State Board books for this written test. Practicing Group 4 and other lower level recruitment tests also will help to some extent. Question may be asked from averages, time and work, percentages, age relations, partnership, simple interest, ratios etc. Following are some model questions for Arithmetic section:

1) The average age of students of a class is 15.8 years. The average age of boys in the class is 16.4 years and that of the girls is 15.4 years. The ratio of number of boys to the number of girls in the class is?

2) The average ages of three persons is 60 years. Those ages are in the proportion of 1:2:3. What is the age of the youngest one among them?

3) By selling an article for Rs. 100, one gains Rs. 10. Find out the gain percent.

4) The population of a town is 176400. It increases annually at the rate of 5 percent per annum. What will be its population after 2 years?

5) Divide Rs. 40 in the ratio of 2:3

6) The least number of five digits which is exactly divisible by 12, 15 and 18 is?

7) 9639 - 3098 = 8067 - ?
A) 526 B) 1796 C) 1896 D) 2336 E) None of these

8) 8563 + 3792 + 4085 = ?
A) 16530 B) 16440 C) 17160 D) 16430 E) None of these

9) 8888 + 888 + 88 = ?
A) 9784 B) 9064 C) 9864 D) 9774 E) None of these

10) Pointing to a man, a woman said, 'His mother is the only daughter of my mother'. How is the woman related to man?
A) Mother B) Grandmother C) Sister D) Daughter E) None of these

07 December 2024

VRO and VRA - General Studies Model Paper Questions

There will be 60 marks for General Studies Question Paper in the written examination to be conducted for VRO and VRA recruitment taken up the Government of Andhra Pradesh. Questions will be asked in the standard of the qualifying examination. For VRO posts, questions will be in the standard of Intermediate and for VRA written test, question will be in the standard of 10th class / SSC of AP State Board. In General Studies, questions will be asked from General Science, Social Studies etc. Question paper will be in objective multiple choice type. There will be four choices for each question and candidates have to select one correct answer.Apart from General Studies, Questions will be asked from Arithmetic Skills . This section has 30 marks weightage. Another section is logical skills which has only 10 marks weightage.

There will be 30 marks for questions on village related issues. Questions will be from rural issues such as panchayats, sarpanches, sources of income, village life and culture, rural development, land related topics etc. In General Studies, subjects such as Science and Technology, Indian History, History of Andhra Pradesh, Geography, Indian Polity, Economy and Issues related to rural Andhra Pradesh will be covered. In General Science, questions will be asked from Zoology, Botany, Chemistry, Physics with reference to day to day application. Following are some model questions taken from previous examinations of similar nature:

1) First official test tube baby in India was declared in
A) 1986 B) 1987 C) 1988 D) 1989

2) First Biotech City in India
A) Bangalore B) Hyderabad C) Lucknow D) Noida

3) Indian Institute of Chemical Technology is located at
A) Ahmedabad B) Aurangabad C) Hyderabad D) Gandhinagar

4) Vitamin A is not available in the following foods
A) Milk B) Fish C) Papaya D) None of these

5) Port City of Kakatiya Dynasty
A) Warangal B) Motupalli C) Adilabad D) Dharmapuri

6) World Congress of Religions was held in
A) New York B) Washington C) Chicago D) New Jersey

7) Who first called Gandhi as 'Mahatma'
A) Lala Lajapati Roy B) Rabindranath Tagore C) Tanguturi Prakasam D) Swami Vivekananda

8) Which is the second largest planet
A) Mercury B) Saturn C) Jupiter D) Earth

9) Freedom of the Press was mentioned in
A) Article 14 B) Article 22 C) Article 19 D) Article 25

10) First Citizen of India is
A) President B) Prime Minister C) Lok Sabha Speaker D) Home Minister

05 February 2024

AP Irrigation Dept APSIDC- AEE, AE Jobs Model Paper- February 2011

Andhra Pradesh State Irrigation Development Corporation (APSIDC), Banjara Hills, Hyderabad issued recruitment notification No. 01/2011 for the posts of Assistant Executive Engineers (AEE), Assistant Engineers (AE) and Technical Assistants (TA) . Selected candidates have to work in mostly rural areas. They will be placed on training for one year. These are regular jobs. Interested candidates can apply online only through www.apsidc.in OR apsidc.cgg.gov.in . APSIDC is an enterprise of Govt. of Andhra Pradesh. Following are details of posts, reservations, eligibility, selection procedure, application process and model /previous papers / questions for the written examination:

1. Assistant Executive Engineers: 9 Posts (OC(W) - 3; BC(B) - 1;
PH (Hearing) - 1; OC -3; ST -1); Eligibility: Applicants must have B.E./ B.Tech/ AMIE in Civil Engineering. They should have acquired the degree by 1-1-2011.

2. Assistant Engineers: 8 Posts (OC(W) - 1; OC-3; SC-1; ST-1; PH (Hearing)-1; BC(A)-1); Eligibility: Candidates must possess Diploma in Civil Engineering as on 1-1-2011. Candidates with higher qualifications other than Diploma in Civil Engineering are not eligible.

3. Technical Assistants: 3 posts (ST-1; OC(W) - 1; BC(B) - 1); Eligibility: Applicants should have ITI (Draughtsman) in Civil Engineering as on 1-1-2011. Those possessing higher qualifications other than ITI (Draughtsman) in
Civil Engineering are not eligible and need not apply.

Selection of candidates will be based on the performance in Written Examination and Oral Interview. Weightage for various stages will be as follows:

1. Written Test: 70 percent weightage
2. Personal computing and Technical computing: 10 percent weightage
3. Personal interview: 20 percent weightage

Model Questions / Model Paper for APSIDC AEE/ AE/ Technical Assistants Jobs:

The Written test is of two hours duration with objective multiple choice questions. The Question paper consists of 100 multiple choice objective type questions. Following are some model questions:

1. The armature of a D.C. machine is made of

a) silicon steel
b) wrought iron
c) cast steel
d) soft iron

2. Transformers usually transfer electrical energy from primary to secondary with change in

a) Frequency
b)Voltage
c) Power
d) Time period

3. The main drawback of a D.. shunt generator is that

a) Shunt circuit has high resistance
b) Generated Voltage is small
c) Terminal voltage drops considerable with load
d) It is expensive

All candidates have to pay the fee of Rs. 75 toward processing fee. Apart from this, General candidates have to pay Rs. 200 as examination fee. SC/ ST/ BC/ PH candidates need not pay this fee of Rs. 200. Fee can be paid at any AP Online center / through AP Online portal.

Important Dates:

1. Starting date for Payment of Fee and Application submission: 9-2-2024
2. Last date for payment of Fee at AP Online Centres: 26-2-2024
3. Last date for On-line submission of Application: 26-2-2024

Address: APSIDC, Road No.13, Banjara Hills, HYDERABAD -34. Phone: 040 23302080, 23302090.

27 January 2024

APGENCO Sub Engineers Model Paper Questions- Useful Books

Andhra Pradesh Power Generation Corporation (Apgenco) shall conduct written examination for the posts of Sub-Engineers in various branches. Following are model / previous questions useful for the applicants of APGENCO Sub-Engineers / Junior Plant Assistant (JPAs). Questions are given for the branches of Electrical / Mechanical/ Electronics/ Civil and also for Section-B of the written test. Candidates can follow below mentioned useful books which are available in all famous book stalls.

APGENCO Sub-Engineers Exam Model Questions:

Electrical Branch Model Questions:

1. 220/440, single phase, 11 KV transformer have resistant P.U. is 0.02 on L.V. side. What is the S.V. side resistance?

a) 0.02
b) 0.01
c) 0.04
d) 0.08
Answer: a


2. Insulation of the cable can be measured by?

a) Meggr
b) Kelvin's double bridge
c) Maxwells bridge
d) Schearing bridge
Answer: d

Mechanical Model Questions:

1. DE LAVAL turbine is?

a) Pressure compound impulse turbine
b) Velocity compound impulse turbine
c) Simple single wheel impulse turbine
d) None
Answer: c

2. Fuel injector is used in?

a) S.I. Engines
b) Gas engine
c) C.I. engines
d) None
Answer: c

Electronics Model Questions:

1. Decade counter requires flip flops?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 10
d) 100
Answer: b

2. The C.R.O. input impedance in order of?

a) 10 ohms
b) 100 ohms
c) 10 k ohms
d) 1 m ohms
Answer: d

Civil model questions:

1. The relationship between Cd, Cv, Cc,?

a) Cd=Cc+Cv
b) Cd=Cc+Cv-1
c) Cd=Cc Cv
d) None
Answer: c


Section-B Model Questions for EEE, Mechanical and ECE Branches:

1. Economizer improve bro boiler efficiency by?

a) 1 to 15 %
b) 4 to 10%
c) 10 to 12%
d) 15 to 20%
Answer: b

2. Water hammering effect displace in?

a) ten stocks
b) surge tank
c) craft tube
d) turbine
Answer: a

Useful / Recommended Books for Objective Questions:

1. Electrical: J.B. Gupta, Rajput
2. Mechanical: R.S. Kurmi, R.K.Bansal
3. Electronics: J.P. Singh
4. Instrumentation: A.K. Sahney
5. ECET: Falcon Series
6. Civil: Rangachari
7. Section - B : Power Plant Engineering: Rajput

20 November 2024

APPSC AEE Agricultural Engineering Model Questions

This is good and rare opportunity for BE/ B.Tech Agriculture Engineering students. APPSC is recruiting posts of Assistant Executive Engineers (AEE) in Agriculture and Engineering Departments of Govt. of Andhra Pradesh. There will be separate question papers for Agriculture Engineering branch in Paper II and Paper III. You can score good marks in these papers as they are based on the subject studied in B.Tech. Following are some model / previous questions that will help you in understanding the nature of the examination and questions.

Paper-2 Agricultural Engineering (Model / Old Questions):

1. A soil can not grow any crop PH value of water
1. 0
2. 2 to 3
3. 7
4. >7

2. Cut-in voltage of silicon diode is
1. 0.3 volts
2. 1.1 volts
3. 0.7 volts
4. 10.3 volts

3. Condition for maximum efficiency in Electrical Machines is
1. Constant losses = variable losses
2. Constant losses = 2 (variable losses)
3. Constant losses = 1/2 (variable losses)
4. None

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