IBPS Clerks English Language Model Practice Questions - Fill in the Blanks

Directions (Q. 1-5): In each of these questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given.
Each sentence has a blank in it five words. 1), 2), 3), 4), and 5) are suggested. Out of these, one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. The number of that word is the answer.

1. I. She has begun to show a great ............in politics.
II. It might ‚....... you to know that I didn't accept the job.
1) choice 2) favour 3) interest 4) deal 5) experience

2. I. The booklets .........you through the process of starting your own business II. The ......scheme will run for six months.
1) teaching 2) pilot 3) test 4) embolden 5) drive

3. I. She pulled to the right with a ........
II. If you are going to sneeze and .... at night, we'll never get any sleep.
1) steering 2) honk 3) scream 4) strike 5) friend

4. I. ......you work hard, you won't be able to clear even the preliminary exam.
II. ....... you change and become like little children, you will never enter the kingdom of heaven.
1) If 2) Until 3) Unless 4) Lest 5) Whether

5. I. At least 50 people died when a bus ........into a river.
II. Japan's banks are in trouble because of bad loans and because the stock market ........
1) dived 2) plunged 3) downed 4) fell 5) submerged

Directions (Q. 6-15): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These blanks are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

A report by the Comptroller and Auditor Genera ..(6).. mining in Goa ..(7).. thanks to ..(8).. between official the Directorate of Mines, Indian Bureau of Mines and politicians in the state, The report ..(9).. Nationalist cong party leaders Jitender Deshprabhu of doing illegal ..(10).. of ore at Sattari, ..(11).. the deep ..(12).. of politicians in the ..(13).. CAG has ..(14).. ..(15).. the mining activities of Sanguem.

6. 1) deep 2) illegal 3) one 4) revives 5) dangerous
7. 1) thrives 2) survives 3) revives 4) drives 5) highlights
8. 1) relation 2) understanding 3) collusion 4) bitterness 5) controversy
9. 1) praises 2) admires 3) reveals 4) accuses 5) focuses
10. 1) pulling 2) extraction 3) detraction 4) concentration 5) selling
11. 1) forecasting 2) spreading 3) revealing 4) discussing 5) talking
12. 1) engagement 2) threatening 3) compromise 4) connivance 5) involvement
13. 1) incident 2) accident 3) event 4) scam 5) case
14. 1) recommended 2) promulgated 3) forecast 4) aired 5) announced
15. 1) vigilance 2) monitoring 3) surveillance 4) watching 5) survey

Answers:

1-3
2-2
3-3
4-3
5-2
6-2
7-1
8-3
9-4
10-2
11-3
12-5
13-4
14-1
15-2.

IBPS 4122 Specialist Officers Cadre Posts - Apply Online by 2 December 2024

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has released recruitment notification to conduct online examination for the Common Recruitment Process (CRP) for selection of personnel in Specialist Officers cadre posts.

Vacancy details:
1. I.T Officer (Scale-I): 335 Posts
2. Agricultural Field Officer (Scale-I): 2580 Posts
3. Rajbhasha Adhikari (Scale-I): 65 Posts
4. Law Officer (Scale-I): 115 Posts
5. HR/Personnel Officer (Scale-I): 81 Posts
6. Marketing Officer (Scale-I): 946 Posts

Age Limit: 20 - 30 years as on 1 November 2016.
Qualification: Candidates should have Engineering/ Technology Degree in CSE/ IT/ ECE/ Electronics/ Electronics and Instrumentation/ Degree in Agriculture/ Horticulture/ Animal Husbandry/ Veterinary Science/ in relevant discipline/ Post Graduation Degree in Hindi with English/ Bachelor Degree in Law (LLB) & enrolled as an advocate with Bar Council/ Post Graduation degree/ MMS (Marketing)/ MBA (Marketing)/ PGDBA/ PGDBM/ PGPM/ PGDM with specialization in Marketing.

How to apply?

Interested candidates can apply online through IBPS website.
Online Registration including edit/ modification of application: 16 November 2024 to 2 December 2016.
Payment of Application Fees- Online: 16.11.2024 to 02.12.2016.
Online Examination (Tentative dates): 28.01.2024 & 29.01.2017.

IBPS - CWE Call Letters Download for PO / MT VI Prelims Test - 2016

IBPS has released the call letters for the CWE of IBPS PO / MT VI Prelims 2016 Examination scheduled in October 2016. Following are the important dates for call letters download:

Important Dates:
1) Commencement of Call letter Download: 1 October 2024
2) Closure of Call letter Download: 27 October 2024

Candidates can follow the link from organisation website to download call letter. At login page, enter the Registration No / Roll No and Password / DOB (dd-mm-yy) at the required places to download the Call Letter.

If you are unable to login, please check your entries in login screen. You should use REGISTRATION NO and PASSWORD as received at the time of registration by displaying on the screen and also mailed to you in auto generated email acknowledgement.

IBPS - RRBs CWE - 5 for Office Assistants and Officers Recruitment - Schedule of Dates 2016

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has announced CWE for the recruitment of officers (Scale 1, 2, 3) an office assistants (multipurpose) in regional rural banks (RRBs).

Details of bank wise vacancies in various states and union territories are available on the IBPS website at www.ibps.in . Following is the schedule of online activity for IBPS - RRBs CWE - V for office assistants and officers posts - 2016.

1) Online application process: 14 September to 30 September 2024

2) Online Preliminary exam: Officers Scale 1 - October 2016 and Office Assistants - November 2016.

3) Results of Online Preliminary Exam: Officer Scale 1 - November 2016, Office Assistants - December 2016.

4) Online Exam - Main: Officers Scale 1, 2 and 3: 11 December 2016, Office Assistants - 18 December 2016.

5) Result of Main Exam: December 2016.
6) Interviews for Officers Posts: January 2017.

IBPS - RRBs Office Assistants Multipurpose Bank Wise Vacancies for All States - 2016

Following are details of bank wise vacancies of Office Assistants posts to be filled through IBPS - RRB (Regional Rural Banks). The online application process commences from 14th September 2016 and the same will be closed on 30th September 2016. There are 8824 vacancies of office assistants (multipurpose) in various banks across the country.

IBPS - RRBs Office Assistants and Officers Recruitment 2016 - Apply Online Before 30th September

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has announced Common Recruitment Process - 2016 for Recruitment of Officers (Scale - I, II and III) and Office Assistants (Multipurpose) in Regional Rural Banks (RRBs). Following are details of state wise / bank wise vacancies, qualifications and application procedure:

Office Assistants (Multipurpose): Degree in any discipline and proficiency in local language.

Officer Scale I: Degree in any discipline and preference will be given to candidates with Agriculture / allied degrees. Candidates also need computer proficiency.

Officer Scale II (General Banking Officers): Degree in any discipline with at least 50 percent marks. Preference will be given to candidates with degree in Agriculture and related subject.

Officer Scale II Specialist Officers: Candidates need Degree in Computers / IT / Electronics/ CA/ Law / MBA / Agriculture or allied subjects.

Officer Scale III: Should have degree in any disciplines with at least 50 percent marks and candidates from Agriculture or allied subject background will be preferred.

Interested candidates can apply online through IBPS website at www.ibps.in from 14th September 2016 to 30th September 2016. The details of bank wise / state wise/ post wise vacancies vacancies are available on the IBPS website.

IBPC Clerks Recruitment 2016 - State Wise Vacancies List

Following are State Wise Vacancies of clerks posts as announced by IBPS as part of its CWE - 6 for Clerks recruitment. Total vacancies are 19243. The online applications through www.ibps.in starts from 22 August and closes on 12 September 2016.

1) Andaman and Nicobar Islands: 25 posts
2) Andhra Pradesh: 699 posts
3) Arunachal Pradesh: 13 posts
4) Assam: 389 posts
5) Bihar: 770 posts
6) Chandigarh: 88 posts
7) Chattisgarh: 302 posts
8) Dadra and Nagar Haveli: 2 posts
9) Daman and Diu: 1 post
10) Goa: 96 posts
11) Gujarat: 769 posts
12) Haryana: 792 posts
13) Himachal Pradesh: 314 posts
14) Jammu and Kashmir: 83 posts
15) Jharkhand: 271 posts
16) Karnataka: 1467 posts
17) Kerala: 842 posts
18) Lakshadweep: 20 posts
19) Madhya Pradesh: 1059 posts
20) Maharashtra: 1343 Posts
21) Manipur: 22 posts
22) Meghalaya: 23 posts
23) Mizoram: 13 posts
24) Nagaland: 12 posts
25) New Delhi: 983 posts
26) Odisha: 591 posts
27) Puducherry: 9 posts
28) Punjab: 1335 posts
29) Rajasthan: 975 posts
30) Sikkim: 15 posts
31) Tamil Nadu: 1032 posts
32) Telangana: 546 posts
33) Tripura: 50 posts
34) Uttar Pradesh: 2612 posts
35) Uttarakhand: 330 posts
36) West Bengal: 1350 posts

19243 Clerks Posts in IBPS CWE - 6 Recruitment for PSU Banks 2016

IBPS has issued a recruitment notification for the posts of Clerks in various PSU banks in India. The approximate vacancies are 19243 to be filled through CWE 6 (Common Written Examination). There will be two stages of recruitment, prelims and mains.

The preliminary examinations are scheduled in November / December 2016 and January 2017. The participating banks include Andhra Bank, Union Bank of India, Syndicate Bank, Bank of India, Allahabad Bank, Canara Bank, Punjab National Bank etc.

Qualifications: Candidates should have Degree / Graduation in any discipline. They also require computer literacy / certificate / diploma / degree in computer operations / language. Age should be between 20 - 28 years as on 1 August 2016. Candidates must have born not earlier than 2 August 2024 and not later than 1 August 1996.

Important Dates:

Online registration commences from 22 August 2016. Closing date for online submission of applications is 12 September 2016. Preliminary exam will be held on 26th, 27th November, 3rd and 4th December 2016. For more information, see www.ibps.in .

IBPS CWE - VI Clerks Recruitment for 18000 Vacancies 2016 - Schedule of Events

IBPS will conduct a preliminary examination in November and December 2016 (IBPS - CWE - VI) for shortlisting the candidates for main examination for the recruitment of Clerks in various participating banks. There are more than 18000 vacancies in various banks across the country.

Age of the candidates should be between 20-28 years as on 1 August 2016. Candidates need Graduation in any discipline.

Important Dates:

1) Online registration including Edit / Modification of Application by candidates: 22 August 2024 to 12 September 2024

2) Payment of Application Fees/Intimation Charges (Online):
22.08.2024 to 12.09.2024

3) Download of call letters for Pre-Exam Training: 25 October 2024 to 07 November 2024

4) Conduct of Pre-Exam Training: 07.11.2024 to 12.11.2024
5) Download of call letters for Online examination - Preliminary: 18.11.2024 onwards

6) Online Examination -Preliminary: 26 and 27.11.2024 03.12.2024 and 04.12.2024 (if required)
7) Result of Online exam -Preliminary: December 2016
8) Download of Call letter for Online exam -Main: December 2016

9) Online Examination -Main: 31.12.2023 and 01.01.2024
10) Provisional Allotment: April 2017

IBPS Exam Dates 2016 - 2017 for Clerks, POs and Specialist Officers

IBPS (Institute of Banking Personnel Selection) has released tentative calender of examinations for CWE - VI for participating organisations. The exam schedules for POs / MTs, Clerks and Specialist Officers for the year 2016 - 17 has been released by IBPS.

1) CWE PO / MT - VI
Preliminary Exam: 16, 22, 23 October 2024
Main Exam: 20 November 2024

2) CWE Clerks - VI
Preliminary Exam: 26, 27 November; 3-4 December 2016
Main Exam: 31 December 2016, 1 January 2024

3) CWE - Specialist Officers - VI
Single Exam: 28 - 29 January 2024

The IBPS will release tentative calendar for RRBs soon. The candidates have to register online only through IBPS website www.ibps.in for detailed notifications for each of the above examination.

IBPS Data Interpretation Pie Chart and Graph Model Questions

Directions (Q.1-5): Study the following pie chart and table carefully and answer the questions accordingly. The pie-chart shows the distribution of two
lakh candidates who appeared for an exam from seven states. The table given below shows the state wise percentage and ratio of male and female qualified candidates.



1. What is the number of female candidates qualified from state F?
1) 9527 2) 9563 3) 9408 4) 9452 5) None of these

2. What is the ratio of male candidates qualified from state B to state D?
1) 21 : 23 2) 31 : 33 3) 122 : 115
4) 14 : 53 5) None of these

3. The number of qualified female candidates from states D, E and F constitute approximately what percent of the total candidates qualified from these states?
1) 38% 2) 42% 3) 65% 4) 86% 5) 47%

4. What is the total number of qualified male candidates from states A and C together?
1) 23196 2) 19276 3) 15436 4) 20736 5) None of these

5. How many candidates that have not qualified from state G?
1) 11640 2) 12760 3) 12480
4) 13270 5) None of these

Answers: 1-3, 2-2, 3-2, 4-4, 5-3.

IBPS Quantitative Aptitude Model Questions with Answers

When solving data interpretation questions, quickly find the relationship between the variables in each table, chart, or graph. Check whether they have a direct or indirect correlation and try to identify where does the data increase or significantly decrease.

1. Ram's present age is three times his son's present age and two fifth of his father's present age. The average of the present ages of all of them is 46 years. What is the difference between the Ram's son's present age and Ram's father's present age?
1) 68 years 2) 78 years 3) 39 years
4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these

2. Profit earned by an organization is distributed among officers and clerks in the ratio of 5 : 3 respectively. If the number of officers is 45 and the number of clerks is 80 and the amount received by each officer is Rs.25000, what was the total amount of profit earned?
1) Rs.22 lakhs 2) Rs.18.25 lakhs
3) Rs.18 lakhs 4) Rs.23.25 lakhs 5) None of these

3. 8 men can complete a piece of work in 20 days. 8 women can complete the same work in 32 days. In how many days will 5 men and 8 women together complete the same work?
1) 16 days 2) 12 days 3) 14 days
4) 10 days 5) None of these

4. A man invested Rs.15000 at interest @ 10 p.c.p.a. for the year. If the interest is compounded every six months what amount will he get at the end of the year?
1) Rs.16237.25 2) Rs.16500
3) Rs.16525.50 4) Rs.16537.50 5) None of these

Directions (Q.5-8): Each of the following questions below consists of a question and three statements denoted A, B and C. You have to study the questions and the statements and decide whether the question can be answered with any one or two or all of the statements together.

5. What is the age of B?
A) B is 12 years younger to C.
B) The average age of B and C is 22 years.
C) The average age of A, B and D is 18 years.
1) A and B 2) B and C 3) A and C
4) All the three 5) None of these

6. What is the area of the garden?
A) The length of the garden is 140 metres.
B) There is a 40 m × 30 m play area in the garden.
C) The width of the garden is 80% of the length of the garden.
1) A and B 2) B and C 3) A and C
4) All the three 5) None of these

7. What is the rate of interest?
A) The simple interest earned is Rs.5800
B) The Compound Interest for the same period is Rs.7400
C) The amount is Rs.18000
1) A and B 2) B and C 3) A and C
4) All the three 5) None of these

8. Find the percentage profit earned on selling the article.
A) Marked price of the article is Rs.520
B) 20% discount is offered on the article.
C) The cost price of the article is Rs. 320.
1) B and C 2) A and C 3) A and B
4) Any two 5) All the three

Answer:

1-2, 2-4, 3-1, 4-4, 5-1, 6-3, 7-5, 8-5.

IBPS - CWE 5 for Specialist Officers Recruitment - 2015

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has issued recruitment notification for the posts of Specialist Officers. The Common Written Examination - 5 (CWE 5) will be conducted by IBPS on 30th and 31st January 2015.

IT Officers: Candidates should have Bachelors / Masters Degree in Computer Science / Computer Applications/ IT / Electronics / Electronics and Telecommunications / Electronics and Communications / Electronics and Instrumentation or its equivalent qualification.

Agriculture Field Officers: Candidates should have four years Bachelors degree in Horticulture / Animal Husbandry / Veterinary Science / Dairy Science, Agri Engineering, Fisheries Science, Agri Marketing and Cooperation / Agri Forestry / Cooperation and Banking etc.

Other posts: Raj Bhasha Officers, Law Officers, HR / Personnel Officers, Marketing Officers. Age of the candidates should be between 20-30 years.

Online applications can be submitted through www.ibps.in from 23 November 2015. Last date for the submission of online applications is 10 December 2015. The online CWE will be held on 30 - 31 January 2016.

IBPS Clerks - English Language Study Material - Passage Questions

Directions (Q. 1-10): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are
printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find
out the appropriate word in each case.

Actually everyday we are engaged in this business of 'reading' people. We do it ...(1).... We want to figure others out. So we ...(2)... make guesses about what others think, value, want and feel and we do so based on our ...(3)... beliefs and understanding about human nature. We do so because if we can figure out ...(4)... and intentions of others the possibility of them ...(5)... or hurting us ...(6)... and this will help us to ...(7)... a lot of unnecessary pain and trouble. We also make second guesses about what they will do in future, how they will ...(8)... if we make this or that response. We do all this second guessing based upon our ...(9)... of what we believe about the person's inner nature ...(10)... his or her roles and manners.

1. 1) vehemently 2) practically 3) actually 4) incessantly 5) virtually

2. 1) ably 2) constantly 3) partly 3) largely 5) positively

3. 1) futuristic 2) proactive 3) reactive 4) decorative 5) assumptive

4. 1) manifestations 2) expressions 3) motives 4) hopes 5) prospects

5. 1) tricking 2) blaming 3) furthering 4) alarming 5) criticizing

6. 1) lessens 2) happens 3) questions 4) deepens 5) praises

7. 1) approach 2) direct 3) avoid 4) implement 5) prepare

8. 1) solve 2) apply 3) plan 4) approach 5) respond

9. 1) projection 2) exhibition 3) situation 4) prediction 5) attribution

10. 1) organizing 2) underneath 3) appreciating 4) proposing 5) outside

Answers:

1-4; 2-2; 3-5; 4-3; 5-1; 6-1; 7-3; 8-5; 9-1 10-2.

IBPS Clerks Material - English Language Model Questions - Rearranging Sentences

Directions (Q. 1-5): Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below them.

(A) Thus rapid development is still unable to meet demand.
(B) Surplus funds from hikes in passenger fares and cuts in staff have made this possible.
(C) This demonstrates that it has been transformed into a modern high-standard design and high service reliable system.
(D) However, China’s railways are not problem free.
(E) China’s railways have been able to generate the funds needed for the construction of new railway lines.
(F) For example, at present 2,80,000 cars are requested daily to transport goods but only half the requests can be met.

1. Which is the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) C 3) D 4) E 5) F

2. Which is the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) C 3) D 4) E 5) F

3. Which is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) D 4) E 5) F

4. Which is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) C 3) D 4) E 5) F

5. Which is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) C 3) D 4) E 5) F

Answers:

(Q. 1-5): Order: E B C D F A
1-5; 2-1; 3-2; 4-2; 5-4.

IBPS Clerks Study Material - English Language - Fill in the Blanks

Directions (Q. 1-5): In each of the following sentences, there are two blanks.
Below each sentence, there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers (1), (2), (3),
(4), (5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks to make sentence
meaningfully correct.

1. The ...... playing of loud music has made the angry residents to file a complaint
and move court against the organiser’s lack of ...... for the people’s need for a peaceful neighbourhood.
1) peaceful, thought
2) abrupt, hope
3) incessant, consideration
4) fashionable, friendliness
5) intermittent, interpretation

2. More is ...... of conditions on the moon than ...... conditions on any other planet.
1) understanding, the 2) known, of
3) aware, of 4) informed, those 5) uncertain, all

3. The ...... before the court prayed for the ...... appointment orders issued by the management.
1) writ, granting 2) application, posting
3) appeal, removing 4) petition, quashing
5) jury, dismissing

4. Every ...... person is careful not to lose his .......
1) quite, power 2) cheerful, grief
3) balanced, temper 4) thoughtful, anxiety
5) cheerful, nervousness

5. The Iron and Steel factory workers were not ...... with their low wages and the non-payment of wages for the last three months ...... fuel to flames.
1) good, put 2) satisfied, added
3) joyful, poured 4) pleased, sprinkle
5) unhappy, meant

Directions (Q. 6-10): In each of the following questions four words are given of which two words are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Find the the two words which are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate the number of correct letter combination.

6. (A) Appalling (B) Sinister (C) Perturb (D) Threatening
1) A-B 2) B-D 3) A-C 4) A-D 5) D-C

7. (A) Pertinent (B) Impolite (C) Irrelevant (D) Insecure
1) A-C 2) B-D 3) C-D 4) A-D 5) B-C

8. (A) Disciple (B) Student (C) Academy (D) Threshold
1) A-C 2) C-D 3) B-C 4) B-D 5) A-B

9. (A) Hectic (B) Terse (C) Concise (D) Immense
1) A-B 2) B-C 3) C-D 4) A-D 5) B-D

10. (A) Ominous (B) Pious (C) Threatening (D) Livid
1) A-B 2) A-D 3) A-C 4) B-C 5) B-D

Answers:

1-3; 2-2; 3-4; 4-3; 5-2;
6-4; Same
7-1; Opp
8-5; Same
9-3; Opp
10-3; Same

IBPS Clerks English Language Model Questions with Answers

Directions (Q. 1-5): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it.
The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence, the number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5).

1. Kiran received timely support (1)/ from his friend (2)/ who is working abroad (3)/ for the last fifteen years. (4)/ No error (5).

2. The speaker was happy that (1)/ the audience were very attentive (2)/ and gave (3)/ patiently listening to all his utterances. (4)/ No error (5).

3. After carefully (1)/ checking all the records (2)/ the auditor submitted a detailed report (3)/ to the higher authorities. (4)/ No error (5).

4. We could not (1)/ believe that one (2)/ of us was (3)/ responsible with the act. (4)/ No error (5).

5. Mumbai is (1)/ one of the leading (2)/ business centre (3)/ in our country. (4)/ No error (5).

Directions (Q. 6-10): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3), (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase in bold to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is mark (5) as the answer.

6. The leader received the honour he deserves for his self-less service.
1) gathered the honour he deserves
2) pooled up the honour he deserved
3) received the fame he deserves
4) received the honour he deserved
5) No correction required

7. The manager did not agree since he was totally opposite to the proposal.
1) absolutely opposite to
2) totally opposed for
3) completely opposite for
4) totally opposed to
5) No correction required

8. The chairman created some more vacancies for accommodate all the selected candidates.
1) to accommodate all
2) to accommodating all
3) for accommodate every
4) in accommodate every
5) No correction required

9. It is learnt that everyone of them are aware of the fact.
1) were aware of 2) is aware of
3) was aware of 4) is aware in
5) No correction required

10. They have been venturing into new projects.
1) They has been venturing into
2) They are being venturing into
3) They would be venturing on
4) They were being ventured on
5) No correction required

Answers:

1-3; Replace 'is' with 'has been'.
2-4; Replace 'patiently' with 'patient'.
3-5; No error.
4-4; Replace 'with' with 'for'.
5-3; It should be 'centres'.
6-4; 7-4; 8-1; 9-3; 10-5.

IBPS Clerks Previous Papers - Quantitative Aptitude Questins with Answers

Directions (Q. 81 - 85): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value).
81. 9125 ÷ 90 ÷ 9 = ?
1) 27 2) 3 3) 7 4) 21 5) 11

82. 6666.009 - 585.999 - 79.989 = ?
1) 5000 2) 5500 3) 6500 4) 4500 5) 6000

83. 11.003 × 10.998 + 111.01 = ?
1) 255 2) 195 3) 230 4) 270 5) 210

84. (14.5)2 = ?
1) 235 2) 190 3) 250 4) 185 5) 210

85. 765.0003 + 44.999 = ?
1) 17 2) 11 3) 6 4) 22 5) 30

Directions (Q.86 - 90): What should come in place ? question mark (?) in the following number series?
86. 2 26 286 ? 18018 90090 270270
1) 3088 2) 2667 3) 3862 4) 2574 5) None of these

87. 358 356 352 344 328 296 ?
1) 232 2) 247 3) 225 4) 255 5) None of these

88. 8 ? 30 105 472.5 2598.75 16891.875
1) 24 2) 10 3) 12 4) 16 5) None of these

89. 3 4 ? 21 85 110 326
1) 7 2) 10 3) 12 4) 14 5) None of these

90. 50000 10000 2500 500 125 ? 6.25
1) 75 2) 25 3) 50 4) 31.5 5) None of these

91. Six women and 10 children together take six days to complete a piece of work. How many days will 10 children take to complete that piece of work if six women together can complete the same piece of work in 10 days?
1) 21 2) 18 3) 12 4) 15 5) None of these

92. The ratio of the monthly incomes of Sneha, Tina and Akruti is 95 : 110 : 16. If Sneha's annual income is ` 3,42,000, what is Akruti's annual income?
1) ` 3,96,900 2) `5,63,500 3) `4,17,600 4) `3,88,00 5) None of these

93. Meghna covered 3.36 km in four weeks by walking an equal distance each day. How many meters does
she walk each day?
1) 100 m 2) 60 m 3) 140 m 4) 120 m 5) None of these

94. The average of four consecutive even numbers A, B, C and D is 37. What is the product of A and C?
1) 1520 2) 1368 3) 1292 4) 1224 5) None of these

95. The product of 5% of a positive number and 2% of the same number is 211.6. What is half of that number?
1) 230 2) 460 3) 920 4) 115 5) None of these

96. Find the missing number if the average of all the eight numbers is 474.
533, 128, 429, 225, -, 305, 601, 804
1) 767 2) 781 3) 776 4) 758 5) None of these

97. The perimeter of a square is twice the perimeter of a rectangle. If the perimeter of the square is 56 cm and the length of the rectangle is 9 cm, what is the difference between the breadth of the rectangle and the side of the square?
1) 7 cm 2) 9 cm 3) 11 cm 4) 5 cm 5) None of these

98. A truck covers a distance of 256 km at the speed of 32 km/hr. What is the average speed of a car which travels a distance of 160 km more than the truck in the same time?
1) 45 km/hr 2) 52 km/hr 3) 49 km/hr 4) 64 km/hr 5) None of these

99. Sushil scored 103 marks in Hindi, 111 Marks in Science, 98 marks in Sanskrit, 110 marks in Maths and 88 marks in English. If the maximum marks of each subject are equal and if Sushil scored 85 per cent marks in all the subjects together, find the maximum marks of each subject.
1) 110 2) 120 3) 115 4) 100 5) None of these

100. A man riding a bicycle completes one lap of a square field along its perimeter at the speed of 39.6 kmh -1 in 1 minute 20 seconds. What is the area of the field?
1) 52900 sq. m. 2) 44100 sq. m. 3) 48400 sq. m.
4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these

Answers:

81-5; 82-5; 83-3; 84-5; 85-1; 86-4; 87-1; 88-3; 89-3; 90-2; 91-4; 92-3; 93-4; 94-3; 95-1; 96-1; 97-2; 98-2; 99-2; 100-3.

IBPS Clerks Previous Questions - English Language with Answers

Following is the English Language Section question paper of the IBPS clerks examination conducted in 2011 by IBPS. The English Language consists of 30 questions for 30 marks. See the questions and answers below:

Directions (36 - 50): Read the following passage to answer the given questions based on it. Some words/ phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

India's manufacturing growth fell to its lowest in more than two years in September 2011, reinforcing fears that an extended period of high policy rates in hurting growth, according to a closely vatched index.

The HSBC India Purchasing Manager's Index (PMI), based on a survey of over 500 companies, fell to 50.4 from 52.6 in August and 53.6 in July. It was the lowest since March 2009, when the reading was below 50, indicating contraction. September's index also recorded the biggest one-month fall since November 2008.

The sub-index for new orders, which reflects future output, declined for the sixth successive month, while export orders fell for a third month on the back of weakness in global economy.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) last week indicated it was not done yet with monetary policy tightening as inflation was still high. The bank has already raised rates 12 times since March 2010 to tame ,inflation, which is at a 13-month high of 9.78% Economists expect the RBI to raise rates one more time but warn that targeted growth will be hard to achieve if the slump continues. "This (fall in PMI) was driven by weaker orders, with export orders still
contracting due to the weaker global economic conditions, "HSBC said a press release quoting its chief economist for India & ASIAN.

PMI is considered a fairly good indicator of manufacturing activity the world over, but in the case of India, the large contribution of the unorganised sector yields a low correlationwith industrial growth. However, the Index for Industrial Production (IIP) has been showing a weakening trend, having slipped to a 21-month low of 3.3% in July. The core sector, which consists of eight infrastructure industries and has a combined weight of 37.9% in the IIP, also grew at only 3.5% in August.

The PMI data is in line with the suffering manufacturing activity in India as per other estimates. Producers are seeing that demand conditions are softening and the outlook is uncertain, therefore they are producing less.

Employment in the manufacturing sector declined for the second consecutive month, indicating too was under pressure. This could be attributed to lower requirement of staff and rise in resignations as higher wage requests go unfulfilled, the HSBC statement said. On the inflation front, input prices rose at an 11-month low rate, but despite signs of softening, they still remain at historically high levels.

While decelerating slightly, the readings for input and output prices suggest that inflation pressures
remain firmly in place. Most economists feel the RBI in close to the end of its rate hike cycle. Even the weekly Wholesale Price Index (WPI) estimates have started showing signs of softening, having fallen more than one percentage point.

36. The PMI is based on survey of
1) Individual Consumers 2) Companies 3) Countries 4) Economists 5) Banks

37. Which year did PMI record the biggest one month fall since 2008?
1) 2008 2) 2009 3) 2010 4) 2011 5) None of these

38. Which of the following explains the phrase, as used in the passage, "it was not done yet"?
1) It is over now 2) There is no hope
3) There is still hope 4) Rates will be further raised
5) PMI will further fall

39. Which of the following indicated by the sub-index for new orders?
1) Export orders 2) WPI 3) Inflation
4) Output price 5) Future output

40. How many companies are included in PMI data from India?
1) About 100 2) Less than 10 3) Between
4) More than 500 5) More than 10,000

41. Which of the following is the prediction of economists about RBI's rate hike cycle, as per the passage?
1) There will not be many rate hikes 2) The rate reduction cycle will start soon
3) There will be many more rate hikes 4) Not indicated in the passage
5) None of these

42. Which of the following is not true about PMI data in India'?
1) It reflects decline in manufacturing 2) In September 2011, PMI was 50.4
3) Reduction is export orders affected PMI 4) Other related estimates support PMI data
5) PMI data is reported once in 3 months

43. PMI is used
1) Only in India 2) World over
3) Only in ASEAN countries 4) Only in developed countries
5) Only in developing countries

44. Which of the following is indicated as one of the reasons for the fall in PMI?
1) Less number of orders were placed.
2) Unorganised sector failed to give the required results.
3) Industrial unrest reduced manufacturing.
4) RBI has stopped raising the rates.
5) WPI has shown signs of softening.

45. Which of the following is correct in the context of the passage?
1) India's manufacturing growth was the lowest in 2010.
2) PMI is not affected by high policy rates.
3) Employment in manufacturing sector was also affected adversely.
4) The input prices were lowest in 2011 as compared to earlier years.
5) IIP was 37.9% in August.

Directions (Q. 46 - 48): Choose the word(s) which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word printed in bold, as used in the passage.
46. yields
1) relents 2) submits 3) produces 4) reduces 5) withstands

47. tame
1) increase 2) timid 3) study 4) control 5) understand

48. still
1) silent 2) now as before 3) nevertheless 4) quiet 5) in spite of

Directions (Q. 49 - 50): Choose the word(s) which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold, as used in the passage.

49. reinforcing
1) contradicting 2) wishing 3) jolting 4) forcing 5) re -inventing

50. slump
1) output 2) rise 3) slide 4) slack 5) input

Directions (Q. 51 - 55): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as 1, 2, 3 and 4. One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark 5, i.e, 'All Correct', as your answer.

51. Another advantage (1)/is that technology (2)/ can be quickly (3)/ adapted (4)/to the client's needs.
All correct (5).

52. It freed me to enter (1)/one of the most (2)/ creatively (3)/ periods (4)/ of my life. All correct (5).

53. About 4500 private (1)/ and 2000, government hospitals (2)/ are empanelled (3)/ under the scheme. (4)/ All correct (5).

54. More ofte (1)/ then (2)/ not we feel concerned (3)/ with the development around (4)/us. All correct (5).

55. Software (1)/ makers in India are facing (2)/ a huge (3)/ pressure. (4) All correct (5).

Directions (Q. 56 - 60): In each of these questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Five words 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. The number of that word is the answer.

56. I. The truck stopped .........
II. We take a ......... walk every day.
1) suddenly 2) long 3) short 4) distant 5) near

57. I. I got the grains ......... in the machine.
II. I do no have any ......... for doubting him.
1) done 2) basis 3) ground 4) crushed 5) tune

58. I. We were asked to design a ......... of the dam.
II. This Institute is a ......... of modern thinking.
1) picture 2) type 3) function 4) fabric 5) model

59. I. Keep a ......... grip on the railing.
II. He was ......... asleep.
1) fast 2) firm 3) deep 4) strong 5) sure

60. I. He asked me to ......... over the fence.
II. We should keep the valuables in the .........
1) vault 2) cross 3) safe 4) tie 5) locker

Directions (Q. 61 - 65): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3) and 4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and 'No correction is required, mark 5) as answer.

61. Most of time strangers have helped in critical situations.
1) Many a time 2) At time 3) More of time
4) At odd period 5) No correction required

62. The reality is that India needs a strong, efficient and competitive aviation sector.
1) what India needs 2) that India need 3) therefore India need
4) needs India 5) No correction required

63. I have known this industry since the last two decades.
1) Since last two decades 2) Ever since the last two decades
3) For the last two decades 4) From the last two decades
5) No correction required

64. Today's children have far most knowledge and far less patience compared to our generation
1) Much most knowledge 2) Far most knowledgeable
3) By far higher knowledge 4) Far more knowledge
5) No correction required

65. Of late, Bonsai trees have attracted the attention of one and all.
1) some and all 2) many and all 3) everyone and all
4) none and all 5) No correction required

Answers:

36-2; 37-2; 38-4; 39-5; 40-4; 41-1; 42-5; 43-2; 44-1; 45-3; 46-3; 47-4; 48-2; 49-1; 50-2; 51-5; 52-3; 53-2; 54-2; 55-4; 56-3; 57-3; 58-5; 59-1; 60-1; 61-1; 62-5; 63-3; 64-4; 65-5; 66-5.

IBPS Clerks Previous Question Paper - Reasoning Section

Following is the IBPC common written examination (reasoning Section) with answers. These are previous questions of the IBPS - CWE for Clerks conducted in 2011. See the questions and answers below:

1. The Positions of how many digits in the number 523169 will remain unchanged if the digits within the number are written in ascending order from left to right?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three
4) Four 5) More than four

3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word 'DAREDEVIL' each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabetical series? (In both forward and backward directions)
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three

4. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, the third, the seventh and the eighth letter of the word 'STEADFAST, which of the of the following will be the second letter of that word? If no such word can be formed, give 'X' as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give 'Y' as the answer.
1) E 2) A 3) T 4) X 5) Y

5. In a certain code, 'TASK' is written as 'BUJR' and 'BIND' is written as 'JCCM'. How is 'SUIT' written in that code?
1) VTSH 2) VSTH 3) TRUJ 4) TRJU 5) None of these

Directions (16 - 20): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
P, Q, A, B, D, R and F are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre, R is not second to the left of D and D is not an immediate neighbour of B, A is third to the right of F, B is second to the left F. Q is not an immediate neighbour of either B or F.

16. Who is second to the right of P?
1) R 2) Q 3) D 4) A 5) Data inadequate

17. Who is on the immediate left of F?
1) R 2) P 3) D 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these

18. Who is on the immediate right of D?
1) Q 2) A 3) F 4) P 5) None of these

19. What is D's position with respect to B?
1) Second to the right 2) Third to the left 3) Second to the left
4) Fourth to the right 5) Third to the right

20. Who is on the immediate right of Q?
1) D 2) R 3) A 4) B 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 21 - 25): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.

1) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I along are not sufficient to answer the question.

3) If the data either in statement I alone are in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

4) If the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

5) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

21. Who among P, Q, R, S and T, each of a different age, is definitely the youngest?
I. R is younger than only T and P.
II. Q is younger than T but not the youngest.

22. Towards which direction was Q facing after he stopped walking?
I. Q walked 30 meters towards West, took left turn and walked-20 meters. He again took a left turn and stopped after walking 30 meters.
II. Q walked 30 meters towards East, took a right turn and walked 20 meters. Then he took a left turn and stopped after walking 30 meters.

23. How is 'always' written in a code language?
I. 'rain is always good' is written as '5397' in that code language.
II. 'He is always there' is written as '3 6 8 5' in that code language.

24. How is M related to D?
I. M has only one son and two daughters.
II. D's brother is the son of M's wife.

25. On which date of April is definitely Pravin's mother's birthday?
I. Pravin correctly remembers that his mother's birthday is after fourteenth but before nineteenth of April.
II. Pravin's sister correctly remembers that their mother's birthday is after sixteenth but before twenty - first of April.

Directions (Q. 26 - 30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Following are the conditions for selecting a Marketing Manager in an organisation. The candidate must

i. be at least 25 years and not more than 35 years old as on 1.12.2024
ii. be a graduate in any discipline with at least 55% aggregate marks

iii. have completed postgraduate degree/ diploma in Management with specialisation in Marketing Management with at least 60% marks.
iv. have post -qualification work experience of at least 5 years as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organisation.

In the case of a candidates who fulfils all the conditions except.

a. ii. above, but has scored at least 50% in graduation and at least 65% in postgraduate degree / diploma in Management with specialisation in Marketing Management, his/her case is to be referred to the Head -Marketing.

b. i. above, but is not more than 40 years old and has work experience of eight years as Assistant Marketing Manager, his/ her case is to be referred to the Managing Director.

In each question below, details of one candidate are provided. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the conditions and sub-conditions given above and the information provided in each question and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to
assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.12.2024 Give answer
1) if the data provided are inadequate to take a decision.
2) if the candidate is not be selected
3) if the candidate is to be selected
4) if the case is to be referred to the Head- Marketing
5) if the case is to be reffered to the Managing Director

Now, read the information provided in each question and mark your answer accordingly

26. Megha Gosavi was born on 8th March 1982. She has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past six years after completing her postgraduate degree in Management with specialisation in Marketing Management with 70% marks. She has scored 53% marks in B.Com.

27. Mihir Sengupta was born on 24th July 1980. He has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past seven years after completing his postgraduate diploma in Marketing Management with 60% marks. He has scored 54% marks in graduation.

28. Arup Pathak has scored 59% marks in graduation and has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past seven years after completing his postgraduate diploma in Management with specialisation in marketing management. He was born on 15th February 1981.

29. Manish Agarwal was born on 2nd january 1978. He has scored 58% marks in B.Sc and 65% marks in postgraduate degree in Marketing Management. He has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past six years after completing his postgraduation.

30. Nilima Patkar has scored 60% marks in graduation. She has been working as Assistant Marketing Managar in an organisation for the past nine years after completing her postgraduate degree in Marketing Management with 65% marks. She was born 18th August 1972.

Directions (Q. 31 - 35): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

P, Q, R, S, T, V and W study in Std IV, V and VI with at least two in any of these standards. Each one of them has a favourite (likes) colour, viz black, red, yellow, green, white, blue and pink, not necessarily in the same order.

Q likes yellow and does not study in Std VI. The one who likes black studies in the same Std as T. R likes blue and studies in the same Standard as W. S studies in Std V only with the one who likes pink. W does not study either in Std V or VI. V does not like black. W does not like either green of white. S does not like green. T does not like pink.

31. Who likes white?
1) P 2) W 3) S 4) V 5) None of these

32. Which of the following combinations is correct?
1) P - Black - V 2) S - White - IV 3) Q - Red - IV
4) R - Blue - IV 5) All are correct

33. What is P's favourite colour?
1) Red 2) Black 3) White
4) Either Black or White 5) None of these

34. Which of the following students study in Std IV?
1) QR 2) QW 3) QRS 4) QRW 5) None of these

35. Who likes red?
1) W 2) S 3) P 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these

Answers:

1-4; 2-3; 3-5; 4-5; 5-1; 6-3; 7-5; 8-4; 9-1; 10-2; 11-4; 12-3; 13-2; 14-5; 15-1; 16-3; 17-2; 18-1; 19-5; 20-3; 21-5; 22-3; 23-4; 24-2; 25-4; 26-4; 27-2; 28-1; 29-3; 30-5; 31-3; 32-4; 33-2; 34-4; 35-1;